This is part of Free Online Model And Sample Papers on IES UPSC
We will be bringing more
1. Euler's equation can be used for
a. Pumps
b. Radial flow compressors
c. Axial flow compressor
d. All the above
Ans: D
2. The machine which develops pressure on rotary principle is known as
a. Compressor
b. Reciprocating compressor
c. Rotary compressor
d. None of the above
Ans: C
3. In a single acting reciprocating air compressor, without clearance the compression of air may be
a. adiabatic
b. polytropic
c. isothermal
d. any one of the above
Ans: D
4. The work required per cycle for a single stage reciprocating compressor with clearance volume as compared to that of ideal single compressor is
a. more
b. less
c. equal
d. none of the above
Ans: B
5. Clearance ratio is defined as the ratio of
a. Clearance volume to the swept volume
b. Clearance volume to cylinder volume
c. Swept volume to the clearance volume
d. Cylinder volume to the clearance volume
Ans: A
6. Rotary air compressors are generally suitable for handling
a. Large discharge of air at high pressure
b. Low discharge air at high
c. pressureLarge discharge of air at low
d. pressureLow discharge of air at low pressure
Ans: C
7. The maximum speed upto which a rotary compressor can be
a. 100 rpm
b. 1000 rpm
c. 10000 rpm
d. 30000 rpm
Ans: D
8. Which one of the following is a wrong statement?
a. The volume of air sucked by the compressor during its suction stroke is known as swept volume
b. The volume of air delivered by the compressor per minute is known as the compressor capacity
c. The absolute pressure of air at outlet of a compressor is known as back pressure
d. The inlet pressure in case of a compressor is always less than the discharge pressure
Ans: C
9. The pressure rise in a non-positive displacement compressor is due to
a. Back flow action
b. Squeezing action
c. Back flow and squeezing action
d. Transfer of kinetic energy of the fluid to the pressure energy
Ans: D
10. The work done on a compressor will be minimum if air air is taken from
a. A source of high high temperature air
b. The atmosphere
c. A source at 00C
d. A source of low temperature air
Ans: D
11. In a multistage compressor, the air compression in the first stage is cooled in an intercooler at constant pressure before passing into the second stage. The cooling is said to be perfect if
a. Air is cooled to a temperature less than its original temperature
b. air is cooled to a temperature more than its original temperature
c. air is cooled to its original temperature
d. none of the above
Ans: C
12. In a centrifugal compressor, an increase in speed at a given pressure ratio causes
a. increase in flow
b. increase in flow and decrease in efficiency
c. decrease in flow
d. decrease in efficiency
Ans: B
13. A compressor is only a
a. Reciprocating
b. Centrifugal
c. Rotary
d. Any one of the above
Ans: D
14. By using multistage compressor with intercooling, a large amount of work
a. will be required
b. will be saved
c. will be wasted
d. none of the above
Ans: B
15. A compressor at high altitudes will require ...... power
a. more
b. same
c. less
Ans: C
16. In a centrifugal compressor, an increase in speed at a given pressure ratio causes
a. decrease in flow
b. increase in flow and decrease in efficiency
c. increase in efficiency
d. decrease in flow and increase
Ans: B
17. In case of positive displacement compressors, the pressure rise takes place due to
a. Back flow of air from receiver or by squeezing action
b. Back flow of air from receiver only
c. Squeezing action of lobes only
d. None of the above
Ans: A
18. In a centrifugal compressor, the ratio of the ........ to the blade velocity is called slip factor
a. Outlet whirl velocity
b. Outlet velocity of flow
c. Inlet velocity of flow
d. Inlet whirl velocity
Ans: A
19. The machine which provides a gas or air at high pressure is known as
a. Turbine
b. Condenser
c. Compressor
d. Steam engine
Ans: C
20. The ratio of the delivery pressure to the supply pressure of air during isothermal compression of an air compressor is known as
a. expansion ratio
b. compression ratio
c. compressor efficiency
d. volumetric efficiency
Ans: B
21. The ratio of air horse power supplied by compressor to the horse power supplied by the prime mover to the compressor, is known as
a. Mechanical efficiency
b. Volumetric efficiency
c. Overall efficiency
d. Isothermal efficiency
Ans: C
22.The compressor capacity is expressed in
a. kg/m3
b. kg/cm3
c. m3/kg
d. m3/min
Ans: D
23. Which one of the following in a positive displacement compressors?
a. Roots blower
b. Centrifugal compressor
c. Axial compressor
d. None of the above
Ans: A
24.The roots efficiency is defined as
a. Actual work done divided by isentropic work done
b. Isentropic work done divided by actual work done
c. Actual work done divided by isentropic work done
d. None of the above
Ans: B
25.The compression ratio for the compressor is always
a. less than one
b. equal to one
c. more than one
d. none of the above
Ans: C
26. Rotary compressors are used to handle
a. Large quantities of air at high pressure
b. Small quantity of air at high pressure
c. Large quantities of air at low pressure
d. Small quantity of air at low pressure
Ans: C
27. Stagnation temperature is equal to
a. Static temperature only
b. Static temperature - temperature equivalent to kinetic head
c. Static temperature + temperature equivalent to kinetic energy head
d. None of the above
Ans: C
28. In case of a compressor, isothermal compression in practice is not possible because the compressor in that case should run
a. at high speed
b. at very high speed
c. at very slow speed
d. at zero speed
Ans: C
29. A compressor is having a capacity of 5m3/min. This means that the compressor
a. delivers 5m3/ min of compressed air
b. compresses 5m3/min of standard air
c. compresses 5m3/min of free air
d. delivers 5m3/min of free air
Ans: C
30. A jet engine has
a. no propeller
b. propeller in front
c. propeller on the top
d. propeller at back
Ans: A
31. For a two stage compressor for maximum efficiency, the intermediate pressure is
a. Arithmetic mean of the initial and final pressure
b. Geometric mean of the initial and final pressure
c. One plus arithmetic mean of initial and final pressure
d. None of the above
Ans: B
32. At the outlet of a compressor, the absolute pressure is known as
a. Back pressure
b. Critical pressure
c. Discharge pressure
d. None of the above
Ans: C
33. The pressure rise in positive displacement compressor takes place due to
a. Squeezing action only
b. Back flow of air from receiver only
c. Back flow of air from receiver or squeezing action
d. None of the above
Ans: C
34. For the highest capacity of a compressor, the intake temperature should be
a. atmospheric
b. highest
c. lowest
d. none of the above
Ans: C
35. In case of centrifugal compressor, the slip is defined as
a. Sum of velocity of whirl at outlet under ideal and actual conditions
b. Difference of velocity of whirl at outlet under ideal and actual conditions
c. Ratio of velocity of whirl at outlet under ideal and actual conditions
d. None of the above
Ans: B
36. The rotary compressor runs at a speed
a. Equal to that of a reciprocating compressor
b. Less than that of reciprocating compressor
c. More than that of reciprocating compressor
d. None of the above
Ans: C
37. In a multistage compressor, the gas after being compressed in one cylinder
a. is heated before it enters the next cylinder
b. is cooled before it enters the next cylinder
c. is cooled back to initial temperature before it enters the next cylinder
d. is cooled 50C less than the initial temperature
Ans: C
38. In a compressor, the shut off pressure is corresponding to
a. Zero discharge
b. Maximum discharge
c. Average discharge
d. None of the above
Ans: A
39. The volume of air sucked by the compressor during its suction stroke is known as
a. Compressor capacity
b. Free air delivery
c. Swept volume
d. None of the above
Ans: C
40. If no cooling device is used in rotary compressor, then the index of compression may be as high as
a. 1.2
b. 1.3
c. 1.7
d. 1.5
Ans: C
41. If the degree of reaction of a compressor is 0.5 then the compressor will have
a. Symmetrical blades
b. Flat blades
c. Unsymmetrical blades
d. None of the above
Ans: A
42. With the increase of pressure ratio, the volumetric efficiency of an air compressor
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains constant
d. none of the above
Ans: A
43. Which of the following is a correct statement?
a. The work done by the prime mover to run a compressor is minimum if compression follows adiabatic law
b. Compressor is a machine which provides a gas at a very high temperature
c. The clearance ratio is defined as the ratio of clearance volume to cylinder volume
d. The compressor capacity is expressed as m3/min
Ans: D
44. The performance of air compressor at high altitudes will be ...... as compared to that at sea level
a. lower
b. higher
c. same
Ans: A
45. In case of a compressor
a. Supply pressure is less than delivery pressure
b. Supply pressure is more than delivery pressure
c. Supply pressure is same as delivery pressure
d. None of the above
Ans: A
46. Which one of the following is a non-positive displacement compressors?
a. Screw compressor
b. Vane blower
c. Roots blower
d. Centrifugal compressor
Ans: D
47. If the flow of air through the compressor is perpendicular to its axis, then it is a
a. Turbo compressor
b. Axial flow compressor
c. Reciprocating compressor
d. Centrifugal compressor
Ans: D
48. The positive displacement compressor, in which the pressure rise takes place due to back flow of high pressure air from the receiver is known as
a. Screw compressor
b. Vane blower
c. Roots blower
d. None of the above
Ans: C
49. The degree of reaction in axial flow compressor is equal to
a. Pressure rise in the stage
b. Ratio of pressure rise in rotor blades to pressure rise in the stage
c. Ratio of pressure rise in stage to pressure rise in rotor blades
d. Pressure rise in rotor blades
Ans: B
50. Which one of the following is a correct statement?
a. A compressor at high altitudes will require more power
b. The volumetric efficiency of a compressor increases with the increase of compression ratio
c. The ratio of the volume of free air delivery per stroke to the swept volume of the piston is known as isothermal efficiency
d. Inter cooling in multistage compressors is done to minimize the work of compression
Ans: D
Source:
http://www.upscportal.com/civilservices/Mechanical+Engineering/Mechanical-Engineering-Sample-Paper
Showing posts with label Sample Papers. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Sample Papers. Show all posts
Friday, April 3, 2009
Thursday, April 2, 2009
UPSC Previous Year Question Paper IES 2008 General Ability
IES General Ability 2008 Download Previous Paper
To Download Select The text and save in Word or Notepad
SYNONYMS
Directions (For the 9 items which follow):
Each of the following nine items consists of a word or a group of
words in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of
words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in
meaning to the word or group of words in capital letters.
1. BEAVER AWAY
a. To waste away
b. To sleep for long hours
c. To work hard
d. To steal something
2. BADGER
a. To ricochet
b. To err
c. To apologize
d. To pester persistently
3. SWISH
a. False
b. Fashionable
c. Annulment
d. Rapid
4. SURREPTITIOUS
a. To be impatient
b. Susceptible
c. Supportive
d. To act stealthily
5. SURROGATE
a. Surpassable
b. Substitute
c. Surfeit
d. Surveillant
6. UP-THE CREEK
a. To get lot of money
b. In dire difficulties
c. To be very successful
d. To achieve one’s aim by deceit
7. CAVEAT
a. Award
b. Controversy
c. Warning
d. Graphic
8. NIP AND TUCK
a. Close competition
b. Heavy rain
c Fierce attack
d. Mixture
9. COMEUPPANCE
a.Sudden arrival
b.Parity
c.Paradox.
d.Retribution
ANTONYMS
Directions (For the 7 items which follow):
Each of the following seven items consists of a word in capital
letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word
or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the word in capital
letters.
10. SALACIOUS
a. Decent
b. Satisfying
c. Preciptious
d. Fortifying
11. SEDULOUS
a. Lack of emotions
b. Lack of steady effort
c. Affluent
d. Modest
12. SWINGEINE
a. Dull
b. Meagre
c. Disrepute
d. Proportionate
13. TEDIUM
a. Appreciation
b. Fixation
c. Neutrability
d. Liveliness
14. TENDENTIOUS
a. Impartial
b. Calm
c. Supplementary
d. Super-duper
15. TEMERITY
a. Humourous
b. Hybrid
c. Humility
d. Humiliation
16. CAPRICE
a. Excuse
b. Steady behaviour
c. Accusation
d. Exhortation
Directions (For the 5 items which follow):
In each of the following five items, a related pair of words (in capital letters) is followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair (in capital letters).
17. CALLOW : MATURITY
a. Eager : Anxiety
b. Incipient : Fruition
c. Apathetic : Disinterest
d. Exposure : Weathering
18. DAMPEN : ENTHUSIASM
a. Moisten : Throat
b. Test : Commitment
c. Reverse: Direction
d. Mute : Sound
19. RUFFLE : COMPOSURE
a. Flourish : Prosperity
b. Adjust : Balance
c. Upset : Equilibrium
d. Chaff : Wheat
20. LATENT : MANIFESTATION
a. Dormant : Awakening
b. Patent : Appearance J
c. Redoubtable : Impress
d. Aggrieved : Distress
21. CELERITY : SNAIL
a. Indolence : Sloth
b. Humility : Peacock
c. Nervous : Energy
d. Emulation : Rivalry
SPOTTING ERRORS
Directions (For the 6 items which follow) :
(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the approximate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than one response, your answer will be considered wrong) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.
(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are
required only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
22.
There were gapes of horror(a)
form the spectators as(b)
the performer fell from the tightrope(c)
No error (d)
23. She gazed at me(a)
in misbelief when(b)
I told her the news(c)
No error (d)
24. Acting from inside information(a)
the police were able to arrest the gang(b)
before the robbery occurred(c)
No error (d)
25. Amit did not have a girl-friend(a)
till he was 21, but now(b)
he is making up at the lost time(c)
No error (d)
26. She wanted to be an actress(a)
but her father soon(b)
nipped that idea in the bud(c)
No error (d)
27. Captain’s language was uncompromising(a)
he told junior officers their work (b)
must improve or they would be fired(c)
No error (d)
ORDERING OF SENTENCES Directions (For the 10 items which follow):
In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and final sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the correct sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
Example ‘X’ has been solved for you.
(EXAMPLE)
X. S1 : There was a boy named Jack
S6 : At least she turned him out of the house
P : So the mother asked him to find work
Q : They were very poor
R : he lived with his mother
S : But Jack refused to work
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) R - Q - P - S
(b) P - - R - S
(c) Q - P - R - S
(d) R - P - S - Q
Explanation: The correct sequence in this example is R-Q-P-S, which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
28. S1 : The first aeroplanes were fragile and
clumsy. S6 : In those days people considered flight in an aeroplane to be a miracle
P : When they took off they would not fly very high
Q : They also broke down frequently
R: It was difficult for them to take off
S : They flew slowly and only in the vicinity of the airfield
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R - P - S - Q
b. S - Q - R - P
c. R -Q- S - P
d. S - P – R - Q
29. S1 : Lions usually live in a family partiescalled ‘prides’.
S6 : They actack man only when they are wounded or otherwise aroused.
P : Wild lions are not normally a menance to man.
Q : A pride is commonly made up of a lion,two lionesses and cubs.
R : Sometimes pigs and other animals are also killed by them.
S : They usually prey on zebras and antelopes.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. P - S - R - Q
b. Q - R - S - P
c. P - R - S - Q
d. Q - S - R - P
30. S1 : Not long age television was a rarity.
S6: Only a few people understand the technology behind it.
P: It has become a means of entertainment and information.
Q: Yet nowadays there is one in virtually every home.
R: But most of us do not know much about how an image appears on the television screen
S: We have grown used to it.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. P - R - Q - S
b. Q - S - P - R
c. P - S- Q - R
d. Q - R - P - S
31. S1: I have know in my own life, in my own experience, people who were hating one
another on account of their religious views.
S6: We are the inheritors of a great world heritage.
P: They try to find out whatever is of value in them.
Q: You will find that other religions are studies with sympathy and respect by those
who do not adhere to them
R: All that has changed today.
S: The classics of the whole world form the classics of every human being.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. P - S - R - Q
b. R - Q - P - S
c. P - - R - S
d. R - S - P - Q
32. S1: Javert was a strong, upright and just man.
S6: So he took the only way out for him-he killed himself.
P: But now his life was turned upside down.
Q: It was his safe world of rules.
R: He would help no one, and he helped noone.
S: He did not want favours from a thief.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q - P -S - R
b. S - R -Q - P
c. Q - R -S - P
d. S - P - Q - R
33. S1: Nowadays we pay a great deal of attention to pure air, open windows and garden cities.
S6: Pasteurised milk is milk which has been treated in this way.
P: Another useful discovery of Pasteur’s was the process, now called, pasteurization.
Q: Pasteur was one of the first to show how necessary all these are if we are to fight
against germs and disease.
R: Pasteur helped them by showing that by heating win or milk to a temperature of 60
degree Centrigrade, the germs were madeharmless.
S: Some wine-growers were troubled by a germ which has turned their win sour.
Which one of the following is the correctsequence?
a. R - S -P - Q
b. Q- P - S - R
c. R - P - S - Q
d. Q- S - P - R
34. S1: Scientist have found that any train running on wheels cannot go faster than 300 kilometres
an hour.
S6: Japanese engineers are, therefore, planning another kind of train, a magnetic train without,
wheels, which would also float above the ground.
P: One way of building such trains has already been tried out
Q: If we want trains which can go still faster we must build them without wheels.
R: But it would not be possible to run them on the Tokaido line because in same tunnels there
would not be enough air to support them
S: Here, the whole train floats above the ground on top of a cushion of air created by
powerful fans.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q-P-S-R
b. S-R-Q-P
c. Q-R-S-P
d. S-P-Q-R
35. S1: Newspapers are the cheapest medium of information today.
S6: Consequently, 50 percent of our population is denied across to information vital for the functionaries of a democracy.
P: If you cannot buy a paper, you can go to a public library.
Q: And yet newspapers do not reach nearly fifty percent of our population.
R: They are also easily available to everybody
S: It is because people are illiterate.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R-S-Q-P
b. Q-P-R-S
c. R-P-Q-S
d. Q-S-R-P .
36. S1: Social isolation, overcrowding, the competitiveness of our society and several
other factors are responsible for stress.
S6: Yet some other get totally depressed andoften much worried.
P: In England we refer to competition insociety as the ‘rat-race’.
Q: All of us react to that rat-race in differentways.
R: But some of us get very much tried andbored every easily.
S: The pressures on all of us are very great because speed and competition have become
part of every day life.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. R-P-Q-S
b. S–Q–P-R
c. R–Q–P-S
d. S-P–Q-R
37. S1: It is true that a few women have opportunities to work outside the home.
S6: If women stop doing this work there would be havoc in the public life.
P: Women do much work all the time within the house.
Q: This work could be termed as socially productive labour.
R: It consists of cooking, washing, cleaning, fetching fuel and water etc.
S: This work is crucial to the survival ofsociety.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. P-Q-R-S
b. R-S-P–Q
c. P-S-R–Q
d. R-Q-P–S
ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
Direction (For the 10 items which follow)
In the following item, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sequence. Choose the proper sequence and marks in your Answer Sheet accordingly. Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you.
(EXAMPLE)
Z. It is well-known that
the effect:P
it very bad:Q
on children:R
of cinema : S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) P-S-R-Q
(b) S-P-Q-R
(c) S-R-P-Q
(d) Q-S-R-P Explanation:
The proper way of writing the sentence is “It is well-known that the effect of cinema on children is very bad.” This is indicated by the sequence P-S-R-Q and so (a) is the correct answer.
38. Life comes
Awed by all the things that their words can do with computer and gadgets:P
who can get anything done by clinking a few buttons:Q
a full circle when some technologically challenged mothers:R
begin to believe that their child is a super-kid in the digital world:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R-P–Q–S
b. P-R–Q–S
c. R-P–S-Q
d. P-R-S-
39. Unaware
Reading other periodicals and publication:P
ourselves with merely:Q
of the need to build:R
the intellect we tend to entertain:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. Q-P-R-S
b. R-S-Q-P
c. Q-S-R-P
d. R-P-Q-S
40. Loss of employment
in a country like India where:P
is no social security net to fall back on:Q
most people are still poor and there:R
or livelihood can be really injurious:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. S-R-P-Q
b. Q-P-R-S
c. Q-R-P-S
d. S-P-R-Q
41. Many people
organized their energies around a goal:P
but simply because they have never:Q
or brains or even courage:R
fail in life not for lack of ability:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. P-Q-R-S
b. S-R–Q–P
c. P-R–Q–P
d. S-Q–R–P
42. Being
to a viewing point a higher more expansive place:P
to move from a point of view:Q
willing to change allows you:R
from which you can seen both sides: S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R-Q-P-S
b. Q-R-P-S
c. Q-R-S-P
d. R-Q-S-P
43. Yet one area
to players who have violated the spirit of the game:P
in which Indian Cricket administration should definitely:Q
denying the benefits of Indian corporate sponsorship:R
use its financial clout is in:S
Which one of the following is the correctsequence?
a. R-P-Q-S
b. Q-S-R-P
c. R-S-Q-P
d. Q-P-R-S
44. While improvements
have definitely helped climbers now carry lighter oxygen bottles:P
in technology over the years:Q
made of titanium and get regular weather updates:R
through satellite phones the route to Mt.Everest remains treacherous as ever:S
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q-P-R-S
b. S-R-P-Q
c. Q-R-P-S
d. S-P-R-Q
45. Life
the number of breaths you take:P
that take your breath away:Q
is not measured by:R
but by the moments:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. Q-P-S-R
b. R-S-P-Q
c. Q-S-P-R
d. R-P-S-Q
46. The greatest
miss it but that it is too:P
danger for most of us:Q
is not that our aim is too high and we:R
low and we reach it:S
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q-S-P-R
b. P-R-Q-S
c. Q-R-P-S
d. P-S-Q-R
47. The fundamental
but an institutional framework that lays down:P
and cannot be trampled on by the ruling government:Q
the rights of the people and rules of political engagement:R
mark of a democracy is not elections: S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. S-P-Q-R
b. P-S-R-Q
c. P-S-Q-R
d. S-P-R-Q
COMPREHENSION
Directions (For the 13 items which follow):
In this section, you have three short passages. After each passage, you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read and passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
Example ‘T and ‘J” are solved for you
PASSAGE (EXAMPLE)
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakable is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human beings or to the lower groups and as animals, all beings primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do all other creature.
I. The author’s remains point is that
(a) different forms of life are found on earth
(b) different levels of existence are possible in nature
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life
J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is
essential in developing the author’s position?
(a) All forms of life have a single over-riding goal
(b) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire of peace
(c) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and pain and death.
Explanation:
I. The idea which represents the author’s main point is
“peace and security are the chief goals of all living being”, which is response (c). So (c) is the correct answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage in “The will
to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace”, which is response (b). So (b) is the correct answer.
PASSAGE I
J.K Galbraith has described the current inflation as a “revolt of the rich against the poor”. Richard Parker supports this view with the claim that it is the richest people that benefit by inflation: while the rest, especially the poorest, suffer in proportion to their relative property. On the other hand, a 1979 study published by the Brookings Institute indicates that the lower classes are generally benefited by inflation, while the upper classes lose. The confusion over who suffers from inflation is extended to other questions such as the major causes of inflation. In addition to the proponents of the demand theory, there are many who doubt whether inflation is
essentially an economic problem at all. Konard Kellen holds that inflation is not an economic problem but a psychological one. Paul Samuelson cites a social factor, the evaluation of a more humane society, as a root cause of inflation.
48. What does the author believe?
a. Only the rich suffer from inflation
b. Only the poor suffer from inflation
c. Both the rich and the poor suffer from inflation
d. It is debatable as to who suffers from inflation
49. From the passage, which one of the following
may be inferred?
a. The effect of inflation can be studied with
scientific precision
b. The effect of inflation cannot be studied
with scientific precision
c. Economists are biased towards the rich or
the poor
d. The effect of inflation varies from place to
place, and people to people
50. On the basis of the information given in the
passage, what are the causes of inflation?
a. Essentially economic
b. Essentially psychological
c. Essentially social
d. Highly controversial
51. How des the author write?
a. Objectively
b. Critically
c. Sympathetically
d. Persuasively
PASSAGE II
Work itself is a very important factor in motivating a person. A person tends to perform a task more enthusiastically if that work affords more satisfaction than the other work. A person’s satisfaction out of work is more is it is more need satisfying. A man seeks something from work and if he gets more satisfaction from a particular work he will be prone to do that work better or harder. There are incentives for work; these can be financial or non-financial. People like missionaries and some scientists do not work basically for material gains as such. A person wants to do a work which is personally meaningful.
52. Which one of the following is correct?
a. Work is the most important factor by
which a person is motivated.
b. Work is the least important factor that
motivates a person
c. Among the several factors that motivate a
person, work is an important one.
d. Nothing can motivate a person who does
not have some permanent work.
53. Which one of the following is correct?
A person’s work satisfaction depends on
a. the money and other benefits he receives
from work
b. the need satisfying nature of the work he
does
c. the physical environment in which he
works
d. the personal relationship he establishes
with his colleagues and superiors
54. Which one of the following is correct?
If, a person get more satisfaction from a particular work, he will
a. stick on the that work for every
b. certainly achieve mastery over that work
soon
c. slowly develop a taste for that work
d. do that work in a better and harder manure
55. Which one of the following is correct?
Both the scientists and the missionaries work
a. because of the incentives given to them
b. without hopping for any material gain
c. without receiving any material gain
d. because they want to be appreciated
56. Which one of the following is correct?
Every person wants to have a work which
a. helps him to get involved meaningfully
b. helps him to earn substantially
c. is pleasant and easy
d. can be finished quickly
PASSAGE III
In our country there is very little popular writing on science. Those who write are writing for other scientists. The newspapers these days devote a little more space then before for scientific topics but they appear to be rather ill-digested knowledge not written in simple readable language. So if we are to bridge this gap and disseminate scientific knowledge and promote scientific temper, it has become necessary for some of the scientists to turn to popularization. Today we have almost compulsion for doing this if we are to convey to the people the meaning and relevance of the pursuit of science. It is time same scientists enters the field of scientific journalism.
57. What does the passage suggest?
a. The author is fully satisfied with the role of newspapers in promoting popular
writing on science.
b. The author is totally dissatisfied with therole of newspapers in promoting popular
writing on science.
c. The author appreciates the readiness ofnewspapers to allow more space than
before to writings on science.
d. The author condemns the attitude displayed by newspapers in the matter of promoting popular writing on science.
58. Which one of the following is correct?
Popular writing on science in our country
appears to be
a. not properly digested and easilycomprehensible
b. extremely restricted in outlook
c. very lucid, intelligible and self explanatory
d. based on obsolete knowledge of the topics chosen
59. Which one of the following is correct?
The propose of promoting popular scientific writing in newspapers is
a. to attract more people to the study of science
b. to spread scientific knowledge and encourage scientific temper among the
common people
c. to give the people information about modern scientific inventions
d. to help the newspapers to increase their circulation among the students of sciencel!
60. The author wants some of the scientists “to
turn to popularization”. What does that imply?
a. The scientists should go round and country and explain to the people the various
achievements of science
b. The scientists should make use of the television and radio to spread the message
of science among the common people
c. The scientists should write in newspapers about the various aspects of science in
easily understandable language.
d. The scientists should seek the help of social organizations to spread scientific knowledge among the common people.
98. Which one of the following is a place of
famous Hindu pilgrimage as well as a site of
important hydroelectric power project?
a. Devaprayag
b. Guntur
c. Nasik-Triambakeshwar
d. Omkareshwar
99. State which one of the following groups of
oceanic water currents meet near
‘Newfoundland Island’ of Canada?
a. Gulf Stream and Labrador
b. Kuroshio and Kurile
c. Agulhas and Mozambique
d. Brazilian and Falkland
100. How many Indian States border Myanmar?
a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Six
101. Match List I with List Ii and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists:
List I
(Name of the River)
A. Godavari
B. Krishna
C. Tapti
D. Cauvery
List II
(Tributary Joining)
1. Parna
2. Hemavati
3. Pranhita
4. Koyana
Code:
A B C D
a.1 4 3 2
b.3 2 1 4
c.1 2 3 4
d.3 4 1 2
102. Where is the Port of East London located?
a. England
b. Ireland
c. East coast of USA
d. South Africa
103. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
a. Northern Rhodesia : Namibia
b. Gold Coast : Ghana
c. Dutch Guyana : Suriname
d. Dutch East Indies : Indonesia
104. Khmer Rouge atrocities pertained to which
one among the following?
a. South Africa
b. Iraq
c. Libya
d. Cambodia
105. Recently, the President of India conferred the
India Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament
and Development for 2006 on whom among
the following?
a. Kim Dae Jung
b. Mohamed El Baradei
c. Shirin Ebadi
d. Wangari Muta Maathai
106. In the year 2007, which one of the following
pairs of countries launched spacecrafts to carry
out research on the Moon?
a. Australia and Canada
b. China and Japan
c. France and Germany
d. Russia and South Korea
107. In December, 2007, which one of the
following countries launched in interceptor
missile called AAD-02 to intercept a ballistic
missile?
a. Iran
b. North Korea
c. India
d. Pakistan
108. Recently, who of the following writers in
English, has been awarded the Sahitya
Akademi Fellowship?
a. Amitav Ghosh
b. Anita Desai
c. Jhumpa Lahiri
d. Shashi Tharoor
109. In the context of Indian Defence, what is
Admiral Gorshkov, frequently in the news?
a. Stealth worship
b. Nuclear powered submarine
c. Aircraft carrier
d. Marine oil drilling platform
110. Hugo Chavez, who is frequently in the news,
is a President of which one of the following
countries?
a. Argentina
b. Brazil
c. Cuba
d. Venezuela
111. What is the Defence outlay (approximate) in
India for the year 2008-09?
a. Rs. 65,000 crores
b. Rs. 85,000 crores
c. Rs. 95,000 crores
d. Rs. 1,05,000 crores
112. What is a major use of allethrin?
a. In household insecticides
b. In glass manufacture
c. In steel manufacture
d. In paints and varnishes
113. Which one of the following is not correctly
match (approximately)?
a. 4 Imperial gallons = 18.18 litres
b. 4 pounds = 1.81 kilograms
c. 30 pounds per sq. in. = 2.07 kg per sq. cm.
d. 5 hectares = 18.35 acres
114. Big Mac Index is employed in the
determination of which one of the following?
a. Infrastructure development
b. Purchasing power parity
c. Defence budget per capita
d. Crop yield
115. What does the term ‘Pyrrhic Victory’ imply?
a. A victory in a war wherein Air Force has
played a major role
b. A victory achieved at a great cost to the
winner
c. A victory of a political party wherein
members of the opposition party have
betrayed their own members
d. A victory achieved in games as a result of
match-fixing
116. The well-known sportsman Liu
Xiang has excelled in which event?
a. Table Tennis
b. Weightlifting
c. Hurdles race
d. Swimming
117. Which one of the following subjects is mainly
dealt with by Montreal Protocol?
a. Undersea cable network
b. International cooperation against terrorism
c. Depletion of Ozone layer
d. Exploration of outer space
118. From which year does the 11th Five Year Plan
start?
a. 2005
b. 2006
c. 2007
d. 2008
119. In the context of India’s defence, what is C-
130 J Hercules?
a. A supersonic fighter jet
b. A troop transport aircraft
c. An unmanned patrol aircraft
d. A multi-purpose amphibious vehicle
120. Who among the following is a blanker?
a. Samir Jain
b. Raghav Bahl
c. K.V. Kamath
d. G.M. Rao
To Download Select The text and save in Word or Notepad
SYNONYMS
Directions (For the 9 items which follow):
Each of the following nine items consists of a word or a group of
words in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of
words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in
meaning to the word or group of words in capital letters.
1. BEAVER AWAY
a. To waste away
b. To sleep for long hours
c. To work hard
d. To steal something
2. BADGER
a. To ricochet
b. To err
c. To apologize
d. To pester persistently
3. SWISH
a. False
b. Fashionable
c. Annulment
d. Rapid
4. SURREPTITIOUS
a. To be impatient
b. Susceptible
c. Supportive
d. To act stealthily
5. SURROGATE
a. Surpassable
b. Substitute
c. Surfeit
d. Surveillant
6. UP-THE CREEK
a. To get lot of money
b. In dire difficulties
c. To be very successful
d. To achieve one’s aim by deceit
7. CAVEAT
a. Award
b. Controversy
c. Warning
d. Graphic
8. NIP AND TUCK
a. Close competition
b. Heavy rain
c Fierce attack
d. Mixture
9. COMEUPPANCE
a.Sudden arrival
b.Parity
c.Paradox.
d.Retribution
ANTONYMS
Directions (For the 7 items which follow):
Each of the following seven items consists of a word in capital
letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word
or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the word in capital
letters.
10. SALACIOUS
a. Decent
b. Satisfying
c. Preciptious
d. Fortifying
11. SEDULOUS
a. Lack of emotions
b. Lack of steady effort
c. Affluent
d. Modest
12. SWINGEINE
a. Dull
b. Meagre
c. Disrepute
d. Proportionate
13. TEDIUM
a. Appreciation
b. Fixation
c. Neutrability
d. Liveliness
14. TENDENTIOUS
a. Impartial
b. Calm
c. Supplementary
d. Super-duper
15. TEMERITY
a. Humourous
b. Hybrid
c. Humility
d. Humiliation
16. CAPRICE
a. Excuse
b. Steady behaviour
c. Accusation
d. Exhortation
Directions (For the 5 items which follow):
In each of the following five items, a related pair of words (in capital letters) is followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair (in capital letters).
17. CALLOW : MATURITY
a. Eager : Anxiety
b. Incipient : Fruition
c. Apathetic : Disinterest
d. Exposure : Weathering
18. DAMPEN : ENTHUSIASM
a. Moisten : Throat
b. Test : Commitment
c. Reverse: Direction
d. Mute : Sound
19. RUFFLE : COMPOSURE
a. Flourish : Prosperity
b. Adjust : Balance
c. Upset : Equilibrium
d. Chaff : Wheat
20. LATENT : MANIFESTATION
a. Dormant : Awakening
b. Patent : Appearance J
c. Redoubtable : Impress
d. Aggrieved : Distress
21. CELERITY : SNAIL
a. Indolence : Sloth
b. Humility : Peacock
c. Nervous : Energy
d. Emulation : Rivalry
SPOTTING ERRORS
Directions (For the 6 items which follow) :
(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the approximate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than one response, your answer will be considered wrong) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.
(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are
required only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
22.
There were gapes of horror(a)
form the spectators as(b)
the performer fell from the tightrope(c)
No error (d)
23. She gazed at me(a)
in misbelief when(b)
I told her the news(c)
No error (d)
24. Acting from inside information(a)
the police were able to arrest the gang(b)
before the robbery occurred(c)
No error (d)
25. Amit did not have a girl-friend(a)
till he was 21, but now(b)
he is making up at the lost time(c)
No error (d)
26. She wanted to be an actress(a)
but her father soon(b)
nipped that idea in the bud(c)
No error (d)
27. Captain’s language was uncompromising(a)
he told junior officers their work (b)
must improve or they would be fired(c)
No error (d)
ORDERING OF SENTENCES Directions (For the 10 items which follow):
In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and final sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the correct sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
Example ‘X’ has been solved for you.
(EXAMPLE)
X. S1 : There was a boy named Jack
S6 : At least she turned him out of the house
P : So the mother asked him to find work
Q : They were very poor
R : he lived with his mother
S : But Jack refused to work
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) R - Q - P - S
(b) P - - R - S
(c) Q - P - R - S
(d) R - P - S - Q
Explanation: The correct sequence in this example is R-Q-P-S, which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
28. S1 : The first aeroplanes were fragile and
clumsy. S6 : In those days people considered flight in an aeroplane to be a miracle
P : When they took off they would not fly very high
Q : They also broke down frequently
R: It was difficult for them to take off
S : They flew slowly and only in the vicinity of the airfield
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R - P - S - Q
b. S - Q - R - P
c. R -Q- S - P
d. S - P – R - Q
29. S1 : Lions usually live in a family partiescalled ‘prides’.
S6 : They actack man only when they are wounded or otherwise aroused.
P : Wild lions are not normally a menance to man.
Q : A pride is commonly made up of a lion,two lionesses and cubs.
R : Sometimes pigs and other animals are also killed by them.
S : They usually prey on zebras and antelopes.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. P - S - R - Q
b. Q - R - S - P
c. P - R - S - Q
d. Q - S - R - P
30. S1 : Not long age television was a rarity.
S6: Only a few people understand the technology behind it.
P: It has become a means of entertainment and information.
Q: Yet nowadays there is one in virtually every home.
R: But most of us do not know much about how an image appears on the television screen
S: We have grown used to it.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. P - R - Q - S
b. Q - S - P - R
c. P - S- Q - R
d. Q - R - P - S
31. S1: I have know in my own life, in my own experience, people who were hating one
another on account of their religious views.
S6: We are the inheritors of a great world heritage.
P: They try to find out whatever is of value in them.
Q: You will find that other religions are studies with sympathy and respect by those
who do not adhere to them
R: All that has changed today.
S: The classics of the whole world form the classics of every human being.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. P - S - R - Q
b. R - Q - P - S
c. P - - R - S
d. R - S - P - Q
32. S1: Javert was a strong, upright and just man.
S6: So he took the only way out for him-he killed himself.
P: But now his life was turned upside down.
Q: It was his safe world of rules.
R: He would help no one, and he helped noone.
S: He did not want favours from a thief.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q - P -S - R
b. S - R -Q - P
c. Q - R -S - P
d. S - P - Q - R
33. S1: Nowadays we pay a great deal of attention to pure air, open windows and garden cities.
S6: Pasteurised milk is milk which has been treated in this way.
P: Another useful discovery of Pasteur’s was the process, now called, pasteurization.
Q: Pasteur was one of the first to show how necessary all these are if we are to fight
against germs and disease.
R: Pasteur helped them by showing that by heating win or milk to a temperature of 60
degree Centrigrade, the germs were madeharmless.
S: Some wine-growers were troubled by a germ which has turned their win sour.
Which one of the following is the correctsequence?
a. R - S -P - Q
b. Q- P - S - R
c. R - P - S - Q
d. Q- S - P - R
34. S1: Scientist have found that any train running on wheels cannot go faster than 300 kilometres
an hour.
S6: Japanese engineers are, therefore, planning another kind of train, a magnetic train without,
wheels, which would also float above the ground.
P: One way of building such trains has already been tried out
Q: If we want trains which can go still faster we must build them without wheels.
R: But it would not be possible to run them on the Tokaido line because in same tunnels there
would not be enough air to support them
S: Here, the whole train floats above the ground on top of a cushion of air created by
powerful fans.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q-P-S-R
b. S-R-Q-P
c. Q-R-S-P
d. S-P-Q-R
35. S1: Newspapers are the cheapest medium of information today.
S6: Consequently, 50 percent of our population is denied across to information vital for the functionaries of a democracy.
P: If you cannot buy a paper, you can go to a public library.
Q: And yet newspapers do not reach nearly fifty percent of our population.
R: They are also easily available to everybody
S: It is because people are illiterate.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R-S-Q-P
b. Q-P-R-S
c. R-P-Q-S
d. Q-S-R-P .
36. S1: Social isolation, overcrowding, the competitiveness of our society and several
other factors are responsible for stress.
S6: Yet some other get totally depressed andoften much worried.
P: In England we refer to competition insociety as the ‘rat-race’.
Q: All of us react to that rat-race in differentways.
R: But some of us get very much tried andbored every easily.
S: The pressures on all of us are very great because speed and competition have become
part of every day life.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. R-P-Q-S
b. S–Q–P-R
c. R–Q–P-S
d. S-P–Q-R
37. S1: It is true that a few women have opportunities to work outside the home.
S6: If women stop doing this work there would be havoc in the public life.
P: Women do much work all the time within the house.
Q: This work could be termed as socially productive labour.
R: It consists of cooking, washing, cleaning, fetching fuel and water etc.
S: This work is crucial to the survival ofsociety.
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. P-Q-R-S
b. R-S-P–Q
c. P-S-R–Q
d. R-Q-P–S
ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
Direction (For the 10 items which follow)
In the following item, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sequence. Choose the proper sequence and marks in your Answer Sheet accordingly. Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you.
(EXAMPLE)
Z. It is well-known that
the effect:P
it very bad:Q
on children:R
of cinema : S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) P-S-R-Q
(b) S-P-Q-R
(c) S-R-P-Q
(d) Q-S-R-P Explanation:
The proper way of writing the sentence is “It is well-known that the effect of cinema on children is very bad.” This is indicated by the sequence P-S-R-Q and so (a) is the correct answer.
38. Life comes
Awed by all the things that their words can do with computer and gadgets:P
who can get anything done by clinking a few buttons:Q
a full circle when some technologically challenged mothers:R
begin to believe that their child is a super-kid in the digital world:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R-P–Q–S
b. P-R–Q–S
c. R-P–S-Q
d. P-R-S-
39. Unaware
Reading other periodicals and publication:P
ourselves with merely:Q
of the need to build:R
the intellect we tend to entertain:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. Q-P-R-S
b. R-S-Q-P
c. Q-S-R-P
d. R-P-Q-S
40. Loss of employment
in a country like India where:P
is no social security net to fall back on:Q
most people are still poor and there:R
or livelihood can be really injurious:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. S-R-P-Q
b. Q-P-R-S
c. Q-R-P-S
d. S-P-R-Q
41. Many people
organized their energies around a goal:P
but simply because they have never:Q
or brains or even courage:R
fail in life not for lack of ability:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. P-Q-R-S
b. S-R–Q–P
c. P-R–Q–P
d. S-Q–R–P
42. Being
to a viewing point a higher more expansive place:P
to move from a point of view:Q
willing to change allows you:R
from which you can seen both sides: S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. R-Q-P-S
b. Q-R-P-S
c. Q-R-S-P
d. R-Q-S-P
43. Yet one area
to players who have violated the spirit of the game:P
in which Indian Cricket administration should definitely:Q
denying the benefits of Indian corporate sponsorship:R
use its financial clout is in:S
Which one of the following is the correctsequence?
a. R-P-Q-S
b. Q-S-R-P
c. R-S-Q-P
d. Q-P-R-S
44. While improvements
have definitely helped climbers now carry lighter oxygen bottles:P
in technology over the years:Q
made of titanium and get regular weather updates:R
through satellite phones the route to Mt.Everest remains treacherous as ever:S
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q-P-R-S
b. S-R-P-Q
c. Q-R-P-S
d. S-P-R-Q
45. Life
the number of breaths you take:P
that take your breath away:Q
is not measured by:R
but by the moments:S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. Q-P-S-R
b. R-S-P-Q
c. Q-S-P-R
d. R-P-S-Q
46. The greatest
miss it but that it is too:P
danger for most of us:Q
is not that our aim is too high and we:R
low and we reach it:S
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence?
a. Q-S-P-R
b. P-R-Q-S
c. Q-R-P-S
d. P-S-Q-R
47. The fundamental
but an institutional framework that lays down:P
and cannot be trampled on by the ruling government:Q
the rights of the people and rules of political engagement:R
mark of a democracy is not elections: S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a. S-P-Q-R
b. P-S-R-Q
c. P-S-Q-R
d. S-P-R-Q
COMPREHENSION
Directions (For the 13 items which follow):
In this section, you have three short passages. After each passage, you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read and passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
Example ‘T and ‘J” are solved for you
PASSAGE (EXAMPLE)
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakable is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human beings or to the lower groups and as animals, all beings primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do all other creature.
I. The author’s remains point is that
(a) different forms of life are found on earth
(b) different levels of existence are possible in nature
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life
J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is
essential in developing the author’s position?
(a) All forms of life have a single over-riding goal
(b) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire of peace
(c) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and pain and death.
Explanation:
I. The idea which represents the author’s main point is
“peace and security are the chief goals of all living being”, which is response (c). So (c) is the correct answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage in “The will
to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace”, which is response (b). So (b) is the correct answer.
PASSAGE I
J.K Galbraith has described the current inflation as a “revolt of the rich against the poor”. Richard Parker supports this view with the claim that it is the richest people that benefit by inflation: while the rest, especially the poorest, suffer in proportion to their relative property. On the other hand, a 1979 study published by the Brookings Institute indicates that the lower classes are generally benefited by inflation, while the upper classes lose. The confusion over who suffers from inflation is extended to other questions such as the major causes of inflation. In addition to the proponents of the demand theory, there are many who doubt whether inflation is
essentially an economic problem at all. Konard Kellen holds that inflation is not an economic problem but a psychological one. Paul Samuelson cites a social factor, the evaluation of a more humane society, as a root cause of inflation.
48. What does the author believe?
a. Only the rich suffer from inflation
b. Only the poor suffer from inflation
c. Both the rich and the poor suffer from inflation
d. It is debatable as to who suffers from inflation
49. From the passage, which one of the following
may be inferred?
a. The effect of inflation can be studied with
scientific precision
b. The effect of inflation cannot be studied
with scientific precision
c. Economists are biased towards the rich or
the poor
d. The effect of inflation varies from place to
place, and people to people
50. On the basis of the information given in the
passage, what are the causes of inflation?
a. Essentially economic
b. Essentially psychological
c. Essentially social
d. Highly controversial
51. How des the author write?
a. Objectively
b. Critically
c. Sympathetically
d. Persuasively
PASSAGE II
Work itself is a very important factor in motivating a person. A person tends to perform a task more enthusiastically if that work affords more satisfaction than the other work. A person’s satisfaction out of work is more is it is more need satisfying. A man seeks something from work and if he gets more satisfaction from a particular work he will be prone to do that work better or harder. There are incentives for work; these can be financial or non-financial. People like missionaries and some scientists do not work basically for material gains as such. A person wants to do a work which is personally meaningful.
52. Which one of the following is correct?
a. Work is the most important factor by
which a person is motivated.
b. Work is the least important factor that
motivates a person
c. Among the several factors that motivate a
person, work is an important one.
d. Nothing can motivate a person who does
not have some permanent work.
53. Which one of the following is correct?
A person’s work satisfaction depends on
a. the money and other benefits he receives
from work
b. the need satisfying nature of the work he
does
c. the physical environment in which he
works
d. the personal relationship he establishes
with his colleagues and superiors
54. Which one of the following is correct?
If, a person get more satisfaction from a particular work, he will
a. stick on the that work for every
b. certainly achieve mastery over that work
soon
c. slowly develop a taste for that work
d. do that work in a better and harder manure
55. Which one of the following is correct?
Both the scientists and the missionaries work
a. because of the incentives given to them
b. without hopping for any material gain
c. without receiving any material gain
d. because they want to be appreciated
56. Which one of the following is correct?
Every person wants to have a work which
a. helps him to get involved meaningfully
b. helps him to earn substantially
c. is pleasant and easy
d. can be finished quickly
PASSAGE III
In our country there is very little popular writing on science. Those who write are writing for other scientists. The newspapers these days devote a little more space then before for scientific topics but they appear to be rather ill-digested knowledge not written in simple readable language. So if we are to bridge this gap and disseminate scientific knowledge and promote scientific temper, it has become necessary for some of the scientists to turn to popularization. Today we have almost compulsion for doing this if we are to convey to the people the meaning and relevance of the pursuit of science. It is time same scientists enters the field of scientific journalism.
57. What does the passage suggest?
a. The author is fully satisfied with the role of newspapers in promoting popular
writing on science.
b. The author is totally dissatisfied with therole of newspapers in promoting popular
writing on science.
c. The author appreciates the readiness ofnewspapers to allow more space than
before to writings on science.
d. The author condemns the attitude displayed by newspapers in the matter of promoting popular writing on science.
58. Which one of the following is correct?
Popular writing on science in our country
appears to be
a. not properly digested and easilycomprehensible
b. extremely restricted in outlook
c. very lucid, intelligible and self explanatory
d. based on obsolete knowledge of the topics chosen
59. Which one of the following is correct?
The propose of promoting popular scientific writing in newspapers is
a. to attract more people to the study of science
b. to spread scientific knowledge and encourage scientific temper among the
common people
c. to give the people information about modern scientific inventions
d. to help the newspapers to increase their circulation among the students of sciencel!
60. The author wants some of the scientists “to
turn to popularization”. What does that imply?
a. The scientists should go round and country and explain to the people the various
achievements of science
b. The scientists should make use of the television and radio to spread the message
of science among the common people
c. The scientists should write in newspapers about the various aspects of science in
easily understandable language.
d. The scientists should seek the help of social organizations to spread scientific knowledge among the common people.
98. Which one of the following is a place of
famous Hindu pilgrimage as well as a site of
important hydroelectric power project?
a. Devaprayag
b. Guntur
c. Nasik-Triambakeshwar
d. Omkareshwar
99. State which one of the following groups of
oceanic water currents meet near
‘Newfoundland Island’ of Canada?
a. Gulf Stream and Labrador
b. Kuroshio and Kurile
c. Agulhas and Mozambique
d. Brazilian and Falkland
100. How many Indian States border Myanmar?
a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Six
101. Match List I with List Ii and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists:
List I
(Name of the River)
A. Godavari
B. Krishna
C. Tapti
D. Cauvery
List II
(Tributary Joining)
1. Parna
2. Hemavati
3. Pranhita
4. Koyana
Code:
A B C D
a.1 4 3 2
b.3 2 1 4
c.1 2 3 4
d.3 4 1 2
102. Where is the Port of East London located?
a. England
b. Ireland
c. East coast of USA
d. South Africa
103. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
a. Northern Rhodesia : Namibia
b. Gold Coast : Ghana
c. Dutch Guyana : Suriname
d. Dutch East Indies : Indonesia
104. Khmer Rouge atrocities pertained to which
one among the following?
a. South Africa
b. Iraq
c. Libya
d. Cambodia
105. Recently, the President of India conferred the
India Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament
and Development for 2006 on whom among
the following?
a. Kim Dae Jung
b. Mohamed El Baradei
c. Shirin Ebadi
d. Wangari Muta Maathai
106. In the year 2007, which one of the following
pairs of countries launched spacecrafts to carry
out research on the Moon?
a. Australia and Canada
b. China and Japan
c. France and Germany
d. Russia and South Korea
107. In December, 2007, which one of the
following countries launched in interceptor
missile called AAD-02 to intercept a ballistic
missile?
a. Iran
b. North Korea
c. India
d. Pakistan
108. Recently, who of the following writers in
English, has been awarded the Sahitya
Akademi Fellowship?
a. Amitav Ghosh
b. Anita Desai
c. Jhumpa Lahiri
d. Shashi Tharoor
109. In the context of Indian Defence, what is
Admiral Gorshkov, frequently in the news?
a. Stealth worship
b. Nuclear powered submarine
c. Aircraft carrier
d. Marine oil drilling platform
110. Hugo Chavez, who is frequently in the news,
is a President of which one of the following
countries?
a. Argentina
b. Brazil
c. Cuba
d. Venezuela
111. What is the Defence outlay (approximate) in
India for the year 2008-09?
a. Rs. 65,000 crores
b. Rs. 85,000 crores
c. Rs. 95,000 crores
d. Rs. 1,05,000 crores
112. What is a major use of allethrin?
a. In household insecticides
b. In glass manufacture
c. In steel manufacture
d. In paints and varnishes
113. Which one of the following is not correctly
match (approximately)?
a. 4 Imperial gallons = 18.18 litres
b. 4 pounds = 1.81 kilograms
c. 30 pounds per sq. in. = 2.07 kg per sq. cm.
d. 5 hectares = 18.35 acres
114. Big Mac Index is employed in the
determination of which one of the following?
a. Infrastructure development
b. Purchasing power parity
c. Defence budget per capita
d. Crop yield
115. What does the term ‘Pyrrhic Victory’ imply?
a. A victory in a war wherein Air Force has
played a major role
b. A victory achieved at a great cost to the
winner
c. A victory of a political party wherein
members of the opposition party have
betrayed their own members
d. A victory achieved in games as a result of
match-fixing
116. The well-known sportsman Liu
Xiang has excelled in which event?
a. Table Tennis
b. Weightlifting
c. Hurdles race
d. Swimming
117. Which one of the following subjects is mainly
dealt with by Montreal Protocol?
a. Undersea cable network
b. International cooperation against terrorism
c. Depletion of Ozone layer
d. Exploration of outer space
118. From which year does the 11th Five Year Plan
start?
a. 2005
b. 2006
c. 2007
d. 2008
119. In the context of India’s defence, what is C-
130 J Hercules?
a. A supersonic fighter jet
b. A troop transport aircraft
c. An unmanned patrol aircraft
d. A multi-purpose amphibious vehicle
120. Who among the following is a blanker?
a. Samir Jain
b. Raghav Bahl
c. K.V. Kamath
d. G.M. Rao
UPSC Previous Years Papers IES 2008
These questions appeared in IES 2008 in Electronics and Telcom Engg Paper 1
1. The line integral of the vector potential A around the boundary of a surface S represents which one of the following?
a. Flux through the surface S
b. Flux density in the surfaces S
c. Magnetic field intensity
d. Current density
2.An infinitely along straight conductor located along Z-axis carries a current I in the +ve Z-direction. The magnetic field at any point P in the X-Y plane is in which direction?
a. In the positive Z-direction
b. In the negative Z-direction
c. In the direction perpendicular to the radial line OP (in X-Y plane) joining the origin O to the point P
d. Along the radial line OP
3.Of two concentric along conducting cylinders, the inner one is kept at a constant positive potential +V0 and the outer one is grounded. What is the electric field in the space between the cylinders/
a. Uniform and directed radially outwards
b. Uniform and directed radially inwards
c. Non-uniform and directed radially outwards
d. Non-uniform and directed parallel to the axis of the cylinders.
4. In a charge-free space, the Poisson’s equation results in which one of the following?
a. Continuity equation
b. Maxwell’s equation
c. Laplace equation
d. None of the above
5. Consider the following statements relating to the microstrip lines:
1. There is no radiation loss problem in microstrip lines.
2. Modes on microstrip line are only quasi-transverse electric and magnetic
3. Microstrip line is also called as open strip line.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 and 3 only
6. Consider the following elements associated with boundary conditions between two media:
1. Normal component of B is continuous at the surface of discontinuity.
2. Normal component of D may or may not be continuous.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
7.In a LDVT, here are two secondary coils which are connected for a single output. Which one of the following is correct?
a. The coils are in series and in phase opposition 1
b. The coils are in parallel and in phase opposition
c. The coils are in series and in the same phase condition
d. The coils are in parallel and in the same phase condition.
8.A resistance strain gauge of gauge factor 2 is used as a transducer element. Neglecting piezoresistive effect, what is the value of Poisson’s ratio?
a. 0.5
b. 1
c. 1.6
d. 2
9. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I
(Thermo couple)
A. Copper Constantan
B. (Platinum Rhodium) Platinum
C. (Rhodium Indium) Indium
D. Iron-Constantan List II (Temperature range)
1. -2000C to +850 0C
2. -2000C to +350 0C
3. 00C to 10000C
4. 12000C to 2000 0C Code:
A B C D
a. 1 4 3 2
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 1 3 4 2
d. 2 4 3 1
10. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a. Data loggers are usually of digital types
b. A digital voltmeter is essentially and A-D converter
c. A servo-type potentiometric recorder has a frequency response better than that of a galvometric recorder
d. In digital transducers, there are ergonomic advantages in presenting digital data.
11. A coil is tuned to resonance of 500 kHz with a resonating capacitor of 36 pF. At 250 kHz, the resonance is obtained with resonating capacitors of 160 pF. What is the self-capacitance of the coil?
a. 2.66 pF
b. 5.33 pF
c. 8 pF
d. 10.6 pF
12. A compensated probe of a CRO contains which of the following?
1. An amplifier
2. R-C network
3. Only resistive network
4. Only capacitive network
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Code:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 4 only
13.The accuracy of a 0.10 mA meter is +2%.What is its accuracy while taking a reading of 5mA?
a. + 0.5%
b. + 1%
c. + 2%
d. + 4%
14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I
(Term)
A. Relative error
B. Precision a
C. Calibration
D. Resolution List II . (Statement)
1. The ability of the device to give identical output when repeat measurements are made with the same input signal
2. The ratio of difference between measured value and the true value to the true value of the measured
3. The smallest increment in measured that can be detected with certainty by the instrument
4. The process of making adjustments on the scale so that the instrument readings conform to an accepted standard
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 2 1 4 3
15. If R, L and C are the parameters of a resistor, what is the condition for the resistor to be non-inductive?
a. L = CR
b. L = CR2
c. C = LR2
d. C = R/L
16. What precaution(s) is/are required for absolute measurement of current by Rayleigh current balance?
1. Precision balance of special form must be used for the accuracy of measurement
2. The flexible leads, used for taking current into the moving coil, must not expert appreciable torque upon the moving system
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Code:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 and 2
17. In a rectangular waveguide
a. TE and TEM waves can exist but TM waves cannot exist
b. TM and TEM waves can exist but TE waves cannot exist
c. TE and TM waves can exist but TEM waves cannot exist
d. TE, TM and TEM all can exist.
18. Which one has the lowest attenuation in a circular waveguide?
a. TM11
b. TE11
c. TE10 d. TE01
19. In a parallel plate waveguide, what is the principal wave?
a. TEM wave
b. T wave
c. TM wave
d. Combination of TE and TM waves having axial components of both electric and magnetic fields
20. According to Poynting theorem, the vector
product E x H is a measure of which one of
the following?
a. Stored energy density of the electric field
b. Stored energy density of the magnetic field
c. Power dissipated per unit volume
d. Rate of energy flow per unit area
21. When does the maximum radiation for an end-fire array occur?
a. Perpendicular to the line of the array only
b. Along the line of the array only
c. At 450 to the line of the array
d. Both perpendicular to and along the line of the array
22. As the aperture area of an antenna increases, its gain
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remain steady
d. Behaves unpredictably
23. Which of the following capacitors are made use of widely for a capacitance application in monolithic ICs?
1. MOS capacitor
2. Collector-Substrate capacitor
3. Collector-Base capacitor
4. Base-Emitter capacitor
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Code:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 1 and 4 only
24. In a network containing active components, output voltage
a. will always be greater than input voltage
b. will always be equal to the input voltage
c. can be less than or greater than input voltage only
d. will be less than, equal to or greater than input voltage
25.intrinsic semiconductor is doped lightly with p-type impurity. It is found that the conductivity actually decreases till a certain doping level is reached. Why does this occur?
a. The mobility of holes decreases
b. The mobility of both electrons and holes decreases
c. The hole density actually reduces
d. Effect of reduction in electrons due to increase in holes compensates more than the effect of increase in holes on conductivity
26. Assuming that the electron mobility in intrinsic silicon is 1500 cm2/Vs at room temperature (T=300 K) and the corresponding’ volt equivalent of temperature’ VT = 25.9 mV, what is the approximate value of the electron diffusion constant?
a. 40 cm2/s
b. 4 cm2/s
c. 400 cm2/s
d. 4000 cm2/s
27. The ‘voltage stability with time’ of reference diodes incorporating Zener diodes is comparable to that of which of the following?
a. Dry cells
b. Nickel-cadmium cells
c. Lead-acid accumulator batteries
d. Conventional standard cells
28. In a MOSFET, the transfer characteristics can be used to determine which of the following device parameters?
a. Threshold voltage and output resistance
b. Trans-conductance and output resistance
c. Threshold voltage and trans-conductance
d. Trans-conductance and channel length modulation parameter
29. Assuming an operating temperature T = 300 K and corresponding VT = 25 mV, what is the change in semiconductor silicon diode forward voltage VD to produce a 10:1 change in diode current ID, while operating in the forward bias region (< 25 mA)?
a. 60 mV
b. 120 mV
c. 180 mV
d. 240 mV
30. The doping concentration on the n-side of a p-n junction diode is enhanced. Which one of the following will get affected?
a. Width of the depletion region on n-side
b. Width of the depletion region on p-side
c. Width of the depletion region on both sides
d. No change in width of depletion regions
31.In a step-graded p-n junction diode, what is the ratio of depletion region penetration depths into p and n regions (if the ratio of accentor to donor impurity atoms’ densities of 1:2)?
a. 2 : 1
b. 4 : 1
c. 1 : 2
d. 1 : 4
32.What is the most noticeable effect of a small increase in temperature in the common emitter connected BJT?
a. Increase in Ice
b. Increase in output resistance
c. Decrease in forward current gain
d. Increase in forward current gain
33.While using a bipolar junction transistor as an amplifier, the collector and emitter terminals got interchanged mistakenly. Assuming that the amplifier and the biasing is suitably adjusted, the interchange of terminals will result into which one of the following?
a. Zero gain
b. Infinite gain
c. Reduced gain
d. No change in gain at all
34.In n-channel enhancement MOSFET, at a fixed drain voltage
a. the drain current is maximum at zero gate voltage and it decreases with applied negative gate voltage
b. the drain current has a finite value at zero gate voltage and it increases or decreases with the applied voltage of proper polarity
c. the drain current is zero at zero gate voltage and it increases with the positive applied gate voltage
d. the drain current is zero for negative bias voltage to gate and it increases as negative gate bias is decreased in magnitude
35. The data sheet for a certain JFET (Junction Field Effect Transistor) indicates that LDSS (drain to source current with gate shorted) = 15 mA and VGS (off) (cut-off value of gate to source voltage)= -5 V. What is the drain current for VGS = -2 V?
a. 58.8 mA
b. 29.4 mA
c. 9.6 mA
d. 5.4 mA
36. What one of the following devices can be turned ‘ON’ of ‘OFF’ by applying gate signal?
a. CSR
b. SCS
c. TRIAC
d. UJT
37. Why is silicon dioxide (SiO2) layer used in ICs?
a. To protect the surface of the chip from external contaminants and to allow for selective formation of the n and p regions by diffusion
b. Because it facilitates the penetration of the desired impurity by diffusion
c. To control the concentration of the diffused impurities
d. Because of its high heat conduction
38.Why is the term ‘planner technology’ for fabrication of devices in ICs used?
a)The variety of manufacturing processes by which devices are fabricated, takes place
through a single plane
b)The aluminum contacts to the collector,base and emitter regions of the transistors
in the ICs are laid in the same plane
c)The collector, base and emitter regions ofthe transistors in ICs are laid in the sameplane
d)The device looks like a thin plane wafer
39.In an optional fibre, the light beam propagates due to which one of the following?
a. Simply reflection of light at a boundary between two media
b. Refection of light in the medium
c. Total internal reflection at the boundary of the fibre
d. Scattering of light in the medium
40.Dispersion in an optical fibre used in a communication link is of which type?
a. Angular dispersion
b. Modal dispersion
c. Chromatic dispersion
d. Dispersion arising due to structural irregularities in the fibre.
41. What is the average power for periodic non-sinusoidal voltage and currents?
a. The average power of the fundamental component alone
b. The sum of the average powers of the harmonics excluding the fundamental
c. The sum of the average powers of he sinusoidal components including the fundamental
d. The sum of the root mean square power of the sinusoidal components including the fundamental
42. The Fourier transform of a function is equal to its two-sided Laplace transform evaluated
a. on the real axis of the s-plane
b. on a line parallel to the real axis of the s-plane
c. on the imaginary axis of the s-plane
d. on a line parallel to the imaginary axis of the s-plane
43.For matching of a radio frequency coaxial line to a purely reactive load
a. quarter-wave transformer would work better than stub matching
b. stub matching would work better than quarter wave transformer
c. both quarter wave transformer and stub matching techniques would work equally well
d. both quarter-wave transformer and stub matching techniques would fail
44. If an infinite homogeneous isotropic medium is modeled as an equivalent transmission line, the characteristic impedance of the corresponding transmission line is known as
a. characteristics impedance
b. iterative impedance
c. wave impedance
d. intrinsic impedance
45. Match List I with List II with respect to the synthesis of R-C driving point function Z(s) = 68. 1/Y(s) and select the correct answer using the
code give below the lists:
List I
(Form)
A. Foster I form
B. Foster Ii form
C. Cauer I form
D. Cauer II form List II (Method)
1. Continued fraction expansion of Z(s) around s = oo
2. Partial fraction expansion of Y(s)/s
3. Continued fraction expansion of Z(s around s = 0
4. Partial fraction expansion of Z(d)
Code:
A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 1 3 4 2
d. 4 2 1 3
46.The lowest and the highest critical frequencies of an R-L driving point impedance are, respectively
a. a zero, a pole
b. a pole, a pole
c. a zero, a zero
d. a pole, a zero
47. A two port network has z11 = 11/35, z12 = z21 = 2/35, z22 = 3/35. Its y11 and y12 parameter will, respectively, be
a. 3, -2
b. 3, 2
c. 13, -2
d. 13, 2
48.A reciprocal two-port network is symmetrical if
a. AA = 1
b. A = C
c. z11 = z22
d. Ay =1
49.Inside a waveguide with perfectly conducing walls, any current present is in the form of
a. displacement current only
b. conduction current only
c. partially displacement current and partially conduction current
d. sometimes displacement current and sometimes conduction current
50.Which one of the following is a passive transducer?
a. Piezoelectric
b. Thermocouple
c. Photovoltanic cell
d. LVDT
51.Which one of the following materials is not used as a piezoelectric transducer?
a. Rochelle salt
b. Lithium sulphate
c. Barium titanate
d. Tungsten oxide
52.Which one of the following modulation techniques is the most efficient for pulse telemetry?
a. PAM
b. PCM
c. PDM
d. PPM
Direction:
Each of the following items consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below: Code:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
53. Assertion (A): The z-transform of the output of an ideal samplers is given by
Z[f( t )] = K0+ K 1 + K 2 +.. + Kn
Reason (R): The relationship is the result of application of z = e-sT, where T stands for the time gap between the samples.
54. Assertion (A): The Kirchhoff s current law states that the sum of currents entering at any node is equal to the sum of currents leaving that node.
Reason (R): The Kirchhoff s current law is based on the law of conservation of charge.
55. Assertion (A): In a linear network, the superposition theorem can be used to calculate power dissipation in a resistive branch of the network.
Reason (R): Superposition theorem is valid for currents and voltages, and therefore is valid also for power dissipation.
56.Assertion (A): Power factor is defined as the ratio of apparent power to the average power in an a.c. circuit.
Reason (R): The magnitude of power factor is always less than unity.
57. Assertion (A): Sinusoidal response in an a.c. circuit can be represented in rectangular form as v = Vcos 6 + jVsin 9, exactly in a way similar to vectors which we come across for force analysis in mechanics.
Reason (R): Phasors are nothing but vectors.
58.Assertion (A): VTVM gives more accurate reading compared to the accuracy of PMMC type of indicating instrument used in it, while measuring voltages across high resistances.
Reason (R): The electronic circuits used in VTVM make it more accurate by increasing its sensitivity.
59.Match List I and List Ii and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I
(Theorem/Law)
A. Norton’s theorem
B. Superposition theorem
C. Thevenin’s theorem
D. Kirchhoffs current law List II
(Property)
1. Effect of independent sources in a linear circuit are additive
2. Law of non-accumulation of change holds good at nodes
3. Current source with shunt resistor
4. Voltage source with series resistor Code:
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 3
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 3 4 1 2
60. Which of the following statements are associated with Thevenin’s theorem?
1. Impedance through which current is required is removed and open-circuit voltage is found
2. It is applicable to only d.c. circuits
3. The network is replaced by a voltage source and a series impedance remains after removing the load impedance.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Code:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
More questions in Part 2 of Paper I Elecronics
Coming Soon
1. The line integral of the vector potential A around the boundary of a surface S represents which one of the following?
a. Flux through the surface S
b. Flux density in the surfaces S
c. Magnetic field intensity
d. Current density
2.An infinitely along straight conductor located along Z-axis carries a current I in the +ve Z-direction. The magnetic field at any point P in the X-Y plane is in which direction?
a. In the positive Z-direction
b. In the negative Z-direction
c. In the direction perpendicular to the radial line OP (in X-Y plane) joining the origin O to the point P
d. Along the radial line OP
3.Of two concentric along conducting cylinders, the inner one is kept at a constant positive potential +V0 and the outer one is grounded. What is the electric field in the space between the cylinders/
a. Uniform and directed radially outwards
b. Uniform and directed radially inwards
c. Non-uniform and directed radially outwards
d. Non-uniform and directed parallel to the axis of the cylinders.
4. In a charge-free space, the Poisson’s equation results in which one of the following?
a. Continuity equation
b. Maxwell’s equation
c. Laplace equation
d. None of the above
5. Consider the following statements relating to the microstrip lines:
1. There is no radiation loss problem in microstrip lines.
2. Modes on microstrip line are only quasi-transverse electric and magnetic
3. Microstrip line is also called as open strip line.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 and 3 only
6. Consider the following elements associated with boundary conditions between two media:
1. Normal component of B is continuous at the surface of discontinuity.
2. Normal component of D may or may not be continuous.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
7.In a LDVT, here are two secondary coils which are connected for a single output. Which one of the following is correct?
a. The coils are in series and in phase opposition 1
b. The coils are in parallel and in phase opposition
c. The coils are in series and in the same phase condition
d. The coils are in parallel and in the same phase condition.
8.A resistance strain gauge of gauge factor 2 is used as a transducer element. Neglecting piezoresistive effect, what is the value of Poisson’s ratio?
a. 0.5
b. 1
c. 1.6
d. 2
9. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I
(Thermo couple)
A. Copper Constantan
B. (Platinum Rhodium) Platinum
C. (Rhodium Indium) Indium
D. Iron-Constantan List II (Temperature range)
1. -2000C to +850 0C
2. -2000C to +350 0C
3. 00C to 10000C
4. 12000C to 2000 0C Code:
A B C D
a. 1 4 3 2
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 1 3 4 2
d. 2 4 3 1
10. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a. Data loggers are usually of digital types
b. A digital voltmeter is essentially and A-D converter
c. A servo-type potentiometric recorder has a frequency response better than that of a galvometric recorder
d. In digital transducers, there are ergonomic advantages in presenting digital data.
11. A coil is tuned to resonance of 500 kHz with a resonating capacitor of 36 pF. At 250 kHz, the resonance is obtained with resonating capacitors of 160 pF. What is the self-capacitance of the coil?
a. 2.66 pF
b. 5.33 pF
c. 8 pF
d. 10.6 pF
12. A compensated probe of a CRO contains which of the following?
1. An amplifier
2. R-C network
3. Only resistive network
4. Only capacitive network
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Code:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 4 only
13.The accuracy of a 0.10 mA meter is +2%.What is its accuracy while taking a reading of 5mA?
a. + 0.5%
b. + 1%
c. + 2%
d. + 4%
14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I
(Term)
A. Relative error
B. Precision a
C. Calibration
D. Resolution List II . (Statement)
1. The ability of the device to give identical output when repeat measurements are made with the same input signal
2. The ratio of difference between measured value and the true value to the true value of the measured
3. The smallest increment in measured that can be detected with certainty by the instrument
4. The process of making adjustments on the scale so that the instrument readings conform to an accepted standard
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 2 1 4 3
15. If R, L and C are the parameters of a resistor, what is the condition for the resistor to be non-inductive?
a. L = CR
b. L = CR2
c. C = LR2
d. C = R/L
16. What precaution(s) is/are required for absolute measurement of current by Rayleigh current balance?
1. Precision balance of special form must be used for the accuracy of measurement
2. The flexible leads, used for taking current into the moving coil, must not expert appreciable torque upon the moving system
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Code:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 and 2
17. In a rectangular waveguide
a. TE and TEM waves can exist but TM waves cannot exist
b. TM and TEM waves can exist but TE waves cannot exist
c. TE and TM waves can exist but TEM waves cannot exist
d. TE, TM and TEM all can exist.
18. Which one has the lowest attenuation in a circular waveguide?
a. TM11
b. TE11
c. TE10 d. TE01
19. In a parallel plate waveguide, what is the principal wave?
a. TEM wave
b. T wave
c. TM wave
d. Combination of TE and TM waves having axial components of both electric and magnetic fields
20. According to Poynting theorem, the vector
product E x H is a measure of which one of
the following?
a. Stored energy density of the electric field
b. Stored energy density of the magnetic field
c. Power dissipated per unit volume
d. Rate of energy flow per unit area
21. When does the maximum radiation for an end-fire array occur?
a. Perpendicular to the line of the array only
b. Along the line of the array only
c. At 450 to the line of the array
d. Both perpendicular to and along the line of the array
22. As the aperture area of an antenna increases, its gain
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remain steady
d. Behaves unpredictably
23. Which of the following capacitors are made use of widely for a capacitance application in monolithic ICs?
1. MOS capacitor
2. Collector-Substrate capacitor
3. Collector-Base capacitor
4. Base-Emitter capacitor
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Code:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 1 and 4 only
24. In a network containing active components, output voltage
a. will always be greater than input voltage
b. will always be equal to the input voltage
c. can be less than or greater than input voltage only
d. will be less than, equal to or greater than input voltage
25.intrinsic semiconductor is doped lightly with p-type impurity. It is found that the conductivity actually decreases till a certain doping level is reached. Why does this occur?
a. The mobility of holes decreases
b. The mobility of both electrons and holes decreases
c. The hole density actually reduces
d. Effect of reduction in electrons due to increase in holes compensates more than the effect of increase in holes on conductivity
26. Assuming that the electron mobility in intrinsic silicon is 1500 cm2/Vs at room temperature (T=300 K) and the corresponding’ volt equivalent of temperature’ VT = 25.9 mV, what is the approximate value of the electron diffusion constant?
a. 40 cm2/s
b. 4 cm2/s
c. 400 cm2/s
d. 4000 cm2/s
27. The ‘voltage stability with time’ of reference diodes incorporating Zener diodes is comparable to that of which of the following?
a. Dry cells
b. Nickel-cadmium cells
c. Lead-acid accumulator batteries
d. Conventional standard cells
28. In a MOSFET, the transfer characteristics can be used to determine which of the following device parameters?
a. Threshold voltage and output resistance
b. Trans-conductance and output resistance
c. Threshold voltage and trans-conductance
d. Trans-conductance and channel length modulation parameter
29. Assuming an operating temperature T = 300 K and corresponding VT = 25 mV, what is the change in semiconductor silicon diode forward voltage VD to produce a 10:1 change in diode current ID, while operating in the forward bias region (< 25 mA)?
a. 60 mV
b. 120 mV
c. 180 mV
d. 240 mV
30. The doping concentration on the n-side of a p-n junction diode is enhanced. Which one of the following will get affected?
a. Width of the depletion region on n-side
b. Width of the depletion region on p-side
c. Width of the depletion region on both sides
d. No change in width of depletion regions
31.In a step-graded p-n junction diode, what is the ratio of depletion region penetration depths into p and n regions (if the ratio of accentor to donor impurity atoms’ densities of 1:2)?
a. 2 : 1
b. 4 : 1
c. 1 : 2
d. 1 : 4
32.What is the most noticeable effect of a small increase in temperature in the common emitter connected BJT?
a. Increase in Ice
b. Increase in output resistance
c. Decrease in forward current gain
d. Increase in forward current gain
33.While using a bipolar junction transistor as an amplifier, the collector and emitter terminals got interchanged mistakenly. Assuming that the amplifier and the biasing is suitably adjusted, the interchange of terminals will result into which one of the following?
a. Zero gain
b. Infinite gain
c. Reduced gain
d. No change in gain at all
34.In n-channel enhancement MOSFET, at a fixed drain voltage
a. the drain current is maximum at zero gate voltage and it decreases with applied negative gate voltage
b. the drain current has a finite value at zero gate voltage and it increases or decreases with the applied voltage of proper polarity
c. the drain current is zero at zero gate voltage and it increases with the positive applied gate voltage
d. the drain current is zero for negative bias voltage to gate and it increases as negative gate bias is decreased in magnitude
35. The data sheet for a certain JFET (Junction Field Effect Transistor) indicates that LDSS (drain to source current with gate shorted) = 15 mA and VGS (off) (cut-off value of gate to source voltage)= -5 V. What is the drain current for VGS = -2 V?
a. 58.8 mA
b. 29.4 mA
c. 9.6 mA
d. 5.4 mA
36. What one of the following devices can be turned ‘ON’ of ‘OFF’ by applying gate signal?
a. CSR
b. SCS
c. TRIAC
d. UJT
37. Why is silicon dioxide (SiO2) layer used in ICs?
a. To protect the surface of the chip from external contaminants and to allow for selective formation of the n and p regions by diffusion
b. Because it facilitates the penetration of the desired impurity by diffusion
c. To control the concentration of the diffused impurities
d. Because of its high heat conduction
38.Why is the term ‘planner technology’ for fabrication of devices in ICs used?
a)The variety of manufacturing processes by which devices are fabricated, takes place
through a single plane
b)The aluminum contacts to the collector,base and emitter regions of the transistors
in the ICs are laid in the same plane
c)The collector, base and emitter regions ofthe transistors in ICs are laid in the sameplane
d)The device looks like a thin plane wafer
39.In an optional fibre, the light beam propagates due to which one of the following?
a. Simply reflection of light at a boundary between two media
b. Refection of light in the medium
c. Total internal reflection at the boundary of the fibre
d. Scattering of light in the medium
40.Dispersion in an optical fibre used in a communication link is of which type?
a. Angular dispersion
b. Modal dispersion
c. Chromatic dispersion
d. Dispersion arising due to structural irregularities in the fibre.
41. What is the average power for periodic non-sinusoidal voltage and currents?
a. The average power of the fundamental component alone
b. The sum of the average powers of the harmonics excluding the fundamental
c. The sum of the average powers of he sinusoidal components including the fundamental
d. The sum of the root mean square power of the sinusoidal components including the fundamental
42. The Fourier transform of a function is equal to its two-sided Laplace transform evaluated
a. on the real axis of the s-plane
b. on a line parallel to the real axis of the s-plane
c. on the imaginary axis of the s-plane
d. on a line parallel to the imaginary axis of the s-plane
43.For matching of a radio frequency coaxial line to a purely reactive load
a. quarter-wave transformer would work better than stub matching
b. stub matching would work better than quarter wave transformer
c. both quarter wave transformer and stub matching techniques would work equally well
d. both quarter-wave transformer and stub matching techniques would fail
44. If an infinite homogeneous isotropic medium is modeled as an equivalent transmission line, the characteristic impedance of the corresponding transmission line is known as
a. characteristics impedance
b. iterative impedance
c. wave impedance
d. intrinsic impedance
45. Match List I with List II with respect to the synthesis of R-C driving point function Z(s) = 68. 1/Y(s) and select the correct answer using the
code give below the lists:
List I
(Form)
A. Foster I form
B. Foster Ii form
C. Cauer I form
D. Cauer II form List II (Method)
1. Continued fraction expansion of Z(s) around s = oo
2. Partial fraction expansion of Y(s)/s
3. Continued fraction expansion of Z(s around s = 0
4. Partial fraction expansion of Z(d)
Code:
A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 1 3 4 2
d. 4 2 1 3
46.The lowest and the highest critical frequencies of an R-L driving point impedance are, respectively
a. a zero, a pole
b. a pole, a pole
c. a zero, a zero
d. a pole, a zero
47. A two port network has z11 = 11/35, z12 = z21 = 2/35, z22 = 3/35. Its y11 and y12 parameter will, respectively, be
a. 3, -2
b. 3, 2
c. 13, -2
d. 13, 2
48.A reciprocal two-port network is symmetrical if
a. AA = 1
b. A = C
c. z11 = z22
d. Ay =1
49.Inside a waveguide with perfectly conducing walls, any current present is in the form of
a. displacement current only
b. conduction current only
c. partially displacement current and partially conduction current
d. sometimes displacement current and sometimes conduction current
50.Which one of the following is a passive transducer?
a. Piezoelectric
b. Thermocouple
c. Photovoltanic cell
d. LVDT
51.Which one of the following materials is not used as a piezoelectric transducer?
a. Rochelle salt
b. Lithium sulphate
c. Barium titanate
d. Tungsten oxide
52.Which one of the following modulation techniques is the most efficient for pulse telemetry?
a. PAM
b. PCM
c. PDM
d. PPM
Direction:
Each of the following items consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below: Code:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
53. Assertion (A): The z-transform of the output of an ideal samplers is given by
Z[f( t )] = K0+ K 1 + K 2 +.. + Kn
Reason (R): The relationship is the result of application of z = e-sT, where T stands for the time gap between the samples.
54. Assertion (A): The Kirchhoff s current law states that the sum of currents entering at any node is equal to the sum of currents leaving that node.
Reason (R): The Kirchhoff s current law is based on the law of conservation of charge.
55. Assertion (A): In a linear network, the superposition theorem can be used to calculate power dissipation in a resistive branch of the network.
Reason (R): Superposition theorem is valid for currents and voltages, and therefore is valid also for power dissipation.
56.Assertion (A): Power factor is defined as the ratio of apparent power to the average power in an a.c. circuit.
Reason (R): The magnitude of power factor is always less than unity.
57. Assertion (A): Sinusoidal response in an a.c. circuit can be represented in rectangular form as v = Vcos 6 + jVsin 9, exactly in a way similar to vectors which we come across for force analysis in mechanics.
Reason (R): Phasors are nothing but vectors.
58.Assertion (A): VTVM gives more accurate reading compared to the accuracy of PMMC type of indicating instrument used in it, while measuring voltages across high resistances.
Reason (R): The electronic circuits used in VTVM make it more accurate by increasing its sensitivity.
59.Match List I and List Ii and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I
(Theorem/Law)
A. Norton’s theorem
B. Superposition theorem
C. Thevenin’s theorem
D. Kirchhoffs current law List II
(Property)
1. Effect of independent sources in a linear circuit are additive
2. Law of non-accumulation of change holds good at nodes
3. Current source with shunt resistor
4. Voltage source with series resistor Code:
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 3
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 3 4 1 2
60. Which of the following statements are associated with Thevenin’s theorem?
1. Impedance through which current is required is removed and open-circuit voltage is found
2. It is applicable to only d.c. circuits
3. The network is replaced by a voltage source and a series impedance remains after removing the load impedance.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Code:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
More questions in Part 2 of Paper I Elecronics
Coming Soon
IAS Exams 2009 free Sample papers
This is first in series of Question Bank for Civil Services Preliminary 2009
This one is for general Studies
1 According to Census 2001, which one of the following Indian States has the
maximum population in India after Uttar Pradesh?
(a) West Bengal (b) Maharashtra
(c) Bihar (d) Tamil Nadu
2 Itaipu Dam built at the River Parana is one of the largest dams in the
world. Which one of the following two countries have this as a joint project?
(a) Brazil and Peru (b) Paraguay and Ecuador
(c) Brazil and Paraguay (d) Colombia and Paraguay
3 Which one of the following cities is not a former capital of the given country
(Country given in the brackets)?
(a) Karachi (Pakistan) (b) Auckland (New Zealand)
(c) Kyoto Japan) (d) Brisbane (Australia)
4 Consider the following statements:
1. Total land area of Earth is approximately 1475 lakh square kilometres.
2. Ratio of land area to water area of Earth is approximately 1 : 4.
3. Maximum percentage of Earth's water is in the Pacific Ocean. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 ai1d 3 (b) 2 and 3 .
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only
5 Consider the following statements:
1. Kyoto Protocol came into force in the year 2005.
2. Kyoto Protocol deals primarily with the depletion of the Ozone layer.
3. Methane as a greenhouse gas is more harmful than carbon dioxide. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(e) 1 only (d) 3 only
6 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Seikan Rail Tunnel: China
(b) Petronas Towers: Malaysia
(c) Appalachian Trail : United States of America
(d) Rogun Dam : Tajikistan
7 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given Continents in the decreasing order of their percentage of Earth's land?
(a) North America - Africa - South America – Europe
(b) Africa - North America - South America – Europe
(c) North America - Africa - Europe - South America
(d) Africa - North America - Europe - South America
8 For which one of the following countries, is Spanish not an official language?
(a) Chile (b) Colombia
(c) Republic of Congo (d) Cuba
9 Which party was founded by Subhash Chandra' Bose in the year 1939 after he broke away from the Congress?
(a) Indian Freedom Party (b) Azad Hind Fauj
(c) Revolutionary Front (d) Forward Block
10 Consider the following statements:
1. Anhydrous sodium carbonate is commonly known as baking soda.
2. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.
3. Bleaching powder is manufactured in Hasenclever plant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct 7
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) I and 2
11 Consider the following statements:
1. A geostationary satellite is at an approximate height of 10,000 km.
2. FM transmission of music is of very good quality because the atmospheric or man-made noises which are generally frequency variations can do 'little harm.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
12 What is the order of magnitude of electric resistance of the human body
(dry)?
(a) 102 ohm (b) 104 ohm
(c) 106 ohm (d) 108 ohm
13 Consider the following statements:
1. The axis of the earth's magnetic field is inclined at 231/2° to the geographic axis of the earth.
2. The earth's magnetic pole in the northern hemisphere is located on a peninsula in northern Canada.
3. Earth's magnetic equator passes through Thumba in South lndia. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
14 Which one of the following is the landmark performance of Dr. V. Mohan
Reddy, an Indian born doctor working in U.S.A., during February, 2005? .
(a) Research on human stem cell which is likely to revolutionise treatment of deadly disease like cancer
(b) Successful open heart procedure called arterial switch performed on an infant
(c) Research on genetic engineering which can help in treatment of deadly disease like AIDS
(d) Successful brain surgery to revive the function of nearly dead brain of a premature born infant
15 Pneumoconiosis afflicts the workers who work mainly in:
(a) Tanneries (b) Coal mining industry
(c) Distilleries (d) Glass industry
16 Who among the following was not a contemporary of the other three?
(a) Bimbsara (b) Gautama Buddha
(c) Milinda (d) Prasenjit
17 Consider the following statements:
The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for
1. the provincial autonomy.
2. the establishment of Federal Court.
3. All India Federation at the ceph'e.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
18 Consider the' following statements:
1. Warren Hastings was the first Governor General who established a regular police force in India on the British pattern.
2. A Supreme Court was established at Calcutta by the Regulating Act, 1773. .
3. The Indian Penal Code came into effect in the year 1860.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
19 Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the battle fought in India in the 18th Century?
(a) Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Buxar - Battle of Ambur - Battle of Plassey
(b) Battle of Ambur - Battle of Plassey - Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Buxar
(c) Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Plassey - Battle of Ambur - Battle of Buxar
(d) Battle of Ambur - Battle of Buxar - Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Plassey
20 Whose autobiography is the book "My Music, My Life"?
(a) Pandit Shiv Kun~ar Sharma (b) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan
(c) Pandit Ravi S.harlkar (d) Ustad Zakir Hussain
21 Consider the following statements:
1. India is the only country in the world producing all the five known commercial varieties of silk.
2. India is the largest producer of sugar in the world. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) I only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
22 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Arjul1 : Indigenously produced Main Battle Tank (MBT)
(b) Phalcon : Cruise missile supplied by Russia to India .
(c) Saras : Indigenously developed civilian passenger aircraft
(d) Operation Seabird: New Indian Naval Base at Karwar
23 For which one of the following, is Satara well-known?
(a) Thermal power plant (b) Wind energy plant
(c) Hydro-electric plant (d) Nuclear power plant
24 Which one of the following companies has started a rural marketing network called 'e-chaupals'?
(a) ITC (b) Dabur
(c) Proctor and Gamble (d) Hindustan Lever
25 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Rourkela Steel Plant, the first integrated steel plant in the Public Sector of India was set up with the Soviet Union collaboration
(b) Salem Steel Plant is a premier producer of stainless steel in India
(c) Maharashtra Elektrosmelt Ltd. is a subsidiary of the Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(d) Visakhapatnam Steel Plant is a unit of the Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd.
26 Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(a) The modern Kochi was a Dutch colony till India's Independence
(b) The Dutch defeated the Portuguese and built Fort Williams in the modern Kochi
(c) The modern Kochi was first a Dutch colony before the Portuguese took over from them
(d) The modern Kochi never became a part of the British colony
27 Which one of the following was probed by the Liberhan Commission?
(a) Test Cricket match fixing (b) Best Bakery Case
(c) Tehelka tapes Case
(d) Demolition of the disputed structure at Ayodhya
28 Which one of the following airports in India is the first to be owned by a
public limited company?
(a) Dabolim Airport, Goa (b) Cochin airport
(c) Hyderabad airport (d) Bangalore airport
29 Consider the following sites/monuments :
1. Champaner - Pavagadh Archaeological Park
2. Chhatrapati Shivaji Railway Station, Mumbai
3. MamalIapuram
4. Sun Temple (Konark Temple)
Which of the above are included in the World Heritage List of UNESCO?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
30 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Bahamas Nassau
(b) Costa Rica San Jose
(c) Nicaragua Belmopan
(d) Dominican Republic Santo Domingo
31 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given towns of
Pakistan while moving from the North towards the South?
(a) Islamabad - Gujranwala - Peshawar – Multan
(b) Peshawar - Gujranwala - Multan – Islamabad
(c) Peshawar - Islamabad - Gujranwala - Multan
(d) Islamabad - Multan - Peshawar - Gujranwala
32 Where are the Balearic Islands located?
(a) Mediterranean Sea (b) Black Sea
(c) Baltic Sea (d) North Sea
33 Which one of the following countries does not border Lithuania?
(a) Poland (b) Ukraine
(c) Belarus (d) Latvia
34 Consider the following statements:
1. The Charter of the United Nations Organization was adopted at Geneva, Switzerland in June, 1945.
2. India was admitted to the United Nations Organization in the year 1945.
3. The Trusteeship Council of the United Nations Organization was established to manage the affairs of territories detached from Japan and Italy after the Second World War or such territories not under the control of a country at that time. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
35 Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament cannot change the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction is limited to that conferred by the Constitution.
2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High If Courts are appointed by the concerned Chief Justice and the administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
36 Consider the following statements:
1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property.
2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right.
3. Article 300 A was inserted in the Constitution of India by the Congress Government at the Centre by the 44th Constitutional Amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 .
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
37 Who among the following invented Lasers?
(a) Theodore Maiman (b) Denis Papin
(c) William Moton (d) Francis Crick
38 Consider the following statements:
1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet
regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitutions of India and the United States of America can envisage a dual
policy (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1 only
39 Consider the following statements:
1, Part IX of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Panchayats and was
inserted by the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992.
2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities
and the Article 243 Q envisages two types of municipalities - a Municipal
Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
40 Consider the following statements:
1. Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla Conference took place.
2. Indian Navy Revolt 1946 took place when the Indian sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
41 Which one of the following territories was not affected by the Revolt of
1857?
(a) Jhansi (b) Chittor
(c) ]agdishpur (d) Lucknow
42 Which one of the following places did Kunwar Singh, a prominent leader of
the Revolt of 1857 belong to?
(a) Bihar (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh
43 Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Mpcementt/Satyagraha Person Actively Associated With
1. Champaran Rajendra Prasad
2. Ahmedabad Mill Workers Morarji Desai
3. Kheda Vallabhbhai Patel select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 .(d) 1, 2 and 3
44 Who among the following was 110t associated with the formation of V.P.
Kisan Sabha in February 1918?
(a) Indra Narain Dwivedi (b) Gauri Shankar Misra
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Madan Mohan Malviya
45 Who among the following drafted the resolution on fundamental rights for
the Karachi Session of Congress in 1931?
(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (b) PanditJawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
46 In October 1920, who of the following headed a group of Indians gathered at
Tashkent to set up a Communist Party of India?
(a) H. K. Sarkar (b) P. C. Joshi
(c) M. C. Chagla (d) M. N. Roy
47 At which Congress Session was the Working Committee authorised to
launch a programme of Civil Disobedience?
(a) Bombay (b) Lahore
(c) Lucknow (d) Tripura
48 In which one of the following provinces was a Congress ministry not formed
under the Act of 1935?
(a) Bihar (b) Madras
(c) Orissa (d) Punjab
49 Consider the following statements: On the eve of the launch of Quit India
Movement, Mahatma Gandhi
1. asked the government servants to resign.
2. asked the soldiers to leave their posts.
3. asked the Princes of the Princely States to accept the sovereignty of their own people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2. (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
50 Where were the Ghadar revolutionaries, who became active during the
outbreak of the World War I based?
(a) Central America (b) North America'
(c) West America (d) South America
51 What was Komagata Maru?
(a) A political party based in Taiwan (b) Peasant communist lead.er of China
(c) A naval ship on voyage to China
(d) A Chinese village where Mao Tse Tung began his Long march
52 Who among the following was a proponent of Fabianism as a movement?
(a) Annie Beasant (b) A. O. Hume
(c) Michael Madhusudan Dutt (d) R. Palme Dutt
53 Recently, to which of the following countries did India offer to built a
BuddhaTemple?
(a) China (b) Myanmar
(c) Thailand (d) Vietnam
54 Which one of the following is not an ASEAN member?
(a) Cambodia (b) China'
(c) Laos (d) Philippines
55 Consider the following:
1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies
2. Motor accident cases 3. Pension cases For which of the above are Lok Adalats held?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only (d) I, 2 and 3
56 Consider the following statements:
1. Second World Buddhist Summit was held in Bangkok in November-December, 2004.
2. World Punjabi Conference was held in Jalandhar in December, 2004.
3. 4th Meeting of the SAARC Trade Ministers was held in Islamabad in November, 2004.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
57 Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament of Russia is called Federal Assembly.
2. The Council of the Federation in the Russian Parliament is the lower house.
3. The name of the upper house in the Russian Parliament is State Duma.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
58 Consider the following statements:
1. Great Britain comprises England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland.
2. England covers less than 60% of the total area of the United Kingdom: Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
59 Consider the following statements:
1. During the process of osmosis, the solvent travels from the concentrated
solution to the dilute solution.
2. In the reverse osmosis, external pressure is applied to the dilute solution.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct 7
(a) I only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
60 Consider the following statements:
1. Poverty Reduction and Growth Facility (PRGF) has been established by the International Development Association (IDA) to provide further assistance to low-income countries facing high level of indebtedness.
2. Singapore Regional Training Institute (STI) is one of the institutes that provides training in macro economic analysis and policy, and related subjects as a part of programme of the IMF Institute.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
61 Consider the following statements:
1. Sensex is based on 50 of the most important stocks available on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
2. For calculating the Sensex, all the Sensex stocks are assigned proportional weightage.
3. New York Stock Exchange- is the oldest stock exchange in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
62 Consider the following statements:
1. The Headquarters of the International Organization for Standardization are located in Rome.
2. ISO 9000 relates to the quality management system and standards.
3. ISO 14000 relates to environmental management system standards.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
63. Consider the following statements:
1. In the First Round Table Conference Dr. Ambedkar demanded separate electorates for the depressed classes.
2. n the Poona Act, special provisions for representation of the depressed people in the local bodies and civil services were made.
3. The Indian National Congress did not take part in the Third Round Table Conference.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
64. Consider the following statements:
1. lshwar Chandra Vidyasagar founded the Bethune School, at Calcutta with the main aim of encouraging education for women.
2. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay was the first graduate of the Calcutta University.
3. Keshav Chandra Sen's campaign against Sati led to the enactment of a law to ban Sati by the then Governor General.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct 7
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
65. Who among the following repealed the Vernacular Press Act?
(a) Lord Dufferin (b) Lord Ripon
(c) Lord Curzon (d) Lord Hardinge
66. Where is the volcanic mountain, Mount St. Helens located?
(a) Chile (b) Japan
(c) Philippines (d) United States of America
67. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The Western Ghats are relatively higher in their northern region
(b) The Anai Mudi is the highest peak in the Western Ghats
(c) Tapi river lies to the south of Satpura
(d) The Narmada and the Tapi river valleys are said to be old rift valleys
68. Gandhi Sagar Dam is a part of which one of the following?
(a) Chambal Project (b) Kosi Project
(c) Damodar Valley Project (d) Bhakra Nangal Project
69 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given hills starting
from the north and going towards the south?
(a) Nllamalai Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills – Anaimalai Hills
(b) Anaimalai Hills - Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills – Nallamalai Hills
(c) Nallamalai Hills - Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills – Anaimalai Hills.
(d) Anaimalai Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills – Nallamalai Hills
70 Which one of the following is not a Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Agasthyamalai (b) Nallamalai
(c) Nilgiri (d) Panchmarhi
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only
Consider the following statements:
1. Vigyan Raif is a Science Exhibition on wheels organized bv the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research.
2. Vigyan Prasar is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Human Resource Development.
3. EDUSA T, the lSRO's educational satellite was launched from French Guyana in 2004.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
71 Consider the following statements:
1. Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) is liquefied under extremely cold temperatures and high pressure to facilitate storage or transportation in specially designed vessels.
2. First LNG terminal in India was built in Hassan.
3. Natural Gas Liquids (NGL) are separated from LPG and these include ethane, propane, butane and natural gasoline.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and3
Directions (For the next FOUR items): Ba1iedon the information given below, answer the four items which follow it : Gopal, Harsh, Inder, Jai and Krislman have Ahmedabad, Bhopal, Cuttack, Delhi and Ernakulam as their hometowns (Not necessarily in that order). They' are studying in Engineering, Medical, Commerce, Economics and History Colleges (Not necessarily in that order). None of the five boys is studying in his hometown, buteach of them studies in one of the cities given above.
Further, it is given that:
(i) Gopal's hometown is Ernakulam. .
(ii) Harsh is not studying in Ahmedabad or Bhopal. .
(iii) Economic College is in Bhopal.
(iv) lnder's hometown is Cuttack.
(v) Krishnan is studying in Delhi
(vi) Jai is studying in Ernakulam and the History College is in his hometown Ahmedabad.
(vii) Engineering College is situated in Ernakulam.
Based on the information given above answer the next FOUR items:
72. Which is Krishnan's hometown?
(a) Ahmedabad (b) Cuttack
(c) Bhopal (d) Cannot be determined
73. Which College is situated in Inder's hometown?
(a) Commerce (b) Medical
(c) Economics (d) Commerce or Medical
74. Who studies in Bhopal?
(a) Gopal (b) Harsh
(c) Gopal or lnder (d) Inder or Harsh
75. If Inder studies in Ahmedabad, then which one of the following is the correct
combination of Person – Hometown Place of Study?
(a) Gopal - Ernakulam- Delhi
(b) Jai.- Ahmedabad - Ernakulam
(c) Krishnan - Delhi - Ernakulam
(d) Harsh - Bhopal- Delhi
76. Left pan of a faulty balance weighs 100 gram more than its right pan. A shopkeeper keeps the weight measure in the left pan while buying goods but keeps it in the right pan while selling his goods. He uses only 1 kg weight measure. If he sells his goods at the listed cost price, what is his gain?
(a) 200/11% (b) 100/11 %
(c) 100/9% (d) 200/9%
77.On a railway route between two places A and B, there are 10 stations on the way. If 4 new stations are to be added, how many types of new tickets will be required if each ticket is issued for a one-way journey?
(a) 14 (b) 48
(c) 96 (d) 108
78.
Aryan runs at a speed of 40 metre/minute. Rahul follows him after an interval of 5 minutes and runs at a speed of 50 metre/minute. Rahul's dog runs at a speed of 60 metre/ minute and starts along with Rahul. The dog reaches Aryan and then comes back to Rahul, and continues to do so till Rahul reaches Aryan. What is the total distance covered by the dog?
(a) 600 metres (b) 750 metres
(c) 980 metres (d) 1200 metres
79.A big rectangular p-Iot. of area 4320 m 2 is divided into 3 square-shaped smaller plots by fencing parallel to the smaller side of the plot. However some area of land Was still left as a square could not be formed. So, 3 more square-shaped plots were formed ~y fencing parallel to the longer side of the original plot such that no area of the plot was left surplus. What are the dimensions of the original plot?
(a) 160 m x 27 111 (b) 240 m x 18 m
(c) 120 m x 36 m (d) 135 m x 32 m
80 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given substances in the decreasing order of their densities?
(a) Steel> Mercury> Gold (b) Gold> Mercury> Steel
(c) Steel> Gold> Mercury (d) Gold:> Steel> Mercury
81. Of which one of the following games is Shanmugham Venkatesh an
outstanding player?
(a) Table tennis (b) Hockey
(c) Football (d) Basketball
82 2 men and 1 woman board a bus in which 5 seats, are vacant.
One of these five seats is reserved for ladies. A woman may or may not sit on the seat reserved for ladies but a man can not sit on the seat reserved for ladies. In how, many different ways can the five seats be occupied by these three passengers?
(a) 15 (b) 36 (c) 48 (d) 60
83 Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts. "
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
84 Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution
Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) B. R. Ambedkar (b) J. B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
85. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Southern Air Command: Thiruvananthapuram
(b) Eastern Naval Command: Visakhapatnam
(c) Armoured Corps Centre and School : Jabalpur
(d) Army Medical Corps Centre and School : Lucknow
86. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Publication Group
1. Sportstar The Hindu publication group
2. Business-world ABP group
3. The Week Malayala Manorama publication group
4. Reader's Digest Indian Express publication group
87 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
88. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Enterprise Industrial Group
1. VSNL Bharati Group
2. Mundra SEZ Adani Group
3. CMC Ltd. Tata Group
4. lPCL Reliance Group
89 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1,2and3 (b) 3and4
(c) I, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
90 In which country is Bandung, where the Conference of Mrican and Asian
nations was held which led to establishing Non-Aligned Movement (NAM),
situated?
(a) Thailand (b) Egypt
(c) Indonesia (d) Philippines
91 A square is divided into 9 identical smaller squares. Six identical balls are to
be placed in these smaller squares such that each of the three rows gets at
least one ball (one ballin one square only). In how many different ways can
this be done?
(a) 27 (b) 36
(c) 54 (d) 81
92 There are 6 persons - A, B, C, D, E and F. They are to be seated in a row
such that B never sits anywhere ahead of A, and Cinever sits anywhere
ahead of B. In how many different ways can this be done?
(a) 60 (b) 72
(c) 120 (d) None of the above
93. For which one of the following items, is Tirupur well C.S.E. General Studies
(Pm.) – 2005 known as a huge exporter to many parts of the world?
(a) Gems and Jewellery (b) Leather goods.
(c) Knitted gannants (d) Handicrafts .
94. Which one of the following pairs is Hot correctly matched?
Project Company
(a) Integrated Steel Plant at Jajpur (Orissa): Steel Authodty of India
(b) Power Plant at Jamnagar(Gujarat): Essar Power
(c) Nabinagar Power Plant (Bihar): Indian railways
(d) Kayamkulom Power Plant (Kerala): National Thermal Power Corporation
95. Virtual water trade is being looked at by experts as a solution to the world's
water crisis. What does virtual water (VW) imply?
(a) Volume of heavy water required to replace ordinary water.
(b) Volume of water required to produce a commodity or service
(c) V olume of water saved by using rainwater harvesting
(d) Volume of water utilized by an effective flood control
96. Consider the following statements concerning the Indian Railways:
1. The Head Quarters of the North Western Railway are located at Jodhpur.
2. ‘lndrail pass' - a travel-as-you-please ticket has been created especially for freedom fighters and sports persons who have represented India in any game/ sport.
3. Fairy Queen is a train using the world's oldest working engine and the Indian Railways conduct a journey of wildlife and heritage sites on it.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None
97. 300 persons are participating in a meeting, out of which 120 are foreigners,
and the rest are Indians. Out of the Indians, there are 110 men who are not
judges; 160 are men or judges, and 35 are women judges. There are no
foreign judges. How many Indian women attended the meeting?
(a) 35 (b) 45 (c)
55 (d) 60
98. There are 6 persons: A, B, C, D, E and F.
A has 3 items more than C D has 4 items less than B
E has 6 items less than F C has 2 items more than E
F has 3 items more than D
Which one of the following figures can not be equal to the total number of items possessed by all the 6 persons?
(a) 41 (b) 47
(c) 53 (d) 58
99. Ten identical particles are moving randomly inside a closed box. What is the
probability that at any given point of time all the ten particles will be lying
in the same half of the box?
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/5
(c) 2/9 (d) 2/11
100. An equilateral triangular plate is to be cut into n number of identical small
equilateral triangular plates. Which one of the following can be possible
value of n?
(a) 196 (b) 216
(c) 256 (d) 296
101. There are 10 identical coins and each one of them has 'H' engraved on its
one face and 'T' engraved on its other face. These 10 coins are lying on a
table and each one of them has 'H' face as the upper face. In one attempt,
exactly four (neither more nor less) coins can be turned upside down. What
is the minimum total number of attempts in which the 'T' faces of all the 10 coins can be brought to be the upper faces?
(a) 4 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) Not possible
102. Which of the following States border Uttar Pradesh?
1. Punjab 2. Rajasthan
3. Chhattisgarh 4. Jharkhand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
103. Which one of the following cities is the seat of Parliament of South Africa?
(a) Pretoria (b) Durban
(c) Johannesburg (d) Cape Town
104. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
British Prime Minister . Political Party
(a) John Major Conservative Partv
(b) James Callaghan Labour Party ~
(c) Harold Wilson Conservative Party
(d) Margaret Thatcher Conservative Party
105 In which one of the following countries, is Tamil a major language?
(a) Myanmar (b) Indonesia
(c) Mauritius (d) Singapore
106. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given Indian cities
in the decreasing order of their normal annual rainfall?
(a) Kochi - Kolkata - Delhi - Patna
(b) Kolkata - Kochi - Patna – Delhi
(c) Kochi - Kolkata - Patna - Delhi
(d) Kolkata - Kochi - Delhi - Patna
106 Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of the United States of America came into force in the year 1810.
2. All revenue bills must originate in the House of Representatives of the US Congress.
3. George W.Bush is the only President in the history of the United States of America whose father was also the President of the United States of America
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
107 Which of the following diseases of mil ching animals are infectious?
1. Foot and Mouth disease 2. Anthrax
3. Black Quarter 4. Cowpox
Select the correct answer using the codes given below;
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
108 Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the Food
and Nutrition Board work?
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
109 Consider the following statements:
1. Dengue is a protozoan' disease transmitted by mosquitoes.
2. Retro-orbital pain is not a symptom of Dengue.
3. Skin rash and bleeding from nose and gums are some of the symptoms of the Dengue.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3
110 Who among the following is not a member of the Investment Commission
formed in December, 2004?
(a) Ratan Tata (b) Deepak Parekh
(c) Ashok Ganguly (d) Kumaramangalam Birla
111 Consider the following statements:
1. Silent Valley National Park is in the Nallamalai range.
2. Pathrakkadavu Hydroelectric Project is proposed to be built near the Silent Valley National Park.
3. The Kunthi river originates in Silent Valley's rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
112 In which one of the following countries did hundreds of people die in year
2004 as a result of flooding and mudslides triggered by Tropical Storm
Jeanne?
(a) Colombia (b) Haiti
(c) Sudan (d) Ghana
113 Consider the following statements:
1. Areawise, Chhattisgarh is larger than West Bengal.
2. According to the Population '2001 Census, population of West Bengal is larger than that of Chhattisgarh.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
114 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Current Name Old Name
(a) Harare Salisbury
(b) Ethiopia Abyssinia.
(c) Ghana Dutch Guiana
(d) Kinshasa Leopoldville
115 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The First Meeting of the Parties (MOP 1) to the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety was held in Philippines in the year 2004
(b) India is not a signatory to the Biosafety Protocol/Convention on Biological Diversity
(c) The Biosafety protocol deals with genetically modified organisms
(d) The United States of America is member of the Biosafety Protocol/Convention on Biological Diversity
116 Which one of the following is the correct statement on the basis of Census-
200l?
(a) Bihar has the highest percentage of the Scheduled Castes of its population
(b) The decadal growth of population of India (1991-2001) has been below 20%
(c) Mizoram is the Indian State with the least population
(d) Pondicherry has the highest sex ratio among the Union Territories
117. Consider the following statements:
1. India is the second country in the world to adopt a National Family Planning Programme.
2. The National Population Policy of India 2000 seeks to achieve replacement level of fertility by 201 0 with a population of 111 crores.
3. Kerala is the first State in India to achieve replacement level of fertility.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct 7
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
118 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) There is no definition of the Scheduled Tribe in the Constitution of India
(b) North-East India accounts for a little over half of the country's tribal population
(c) The people known as Todas live in the Nilgiri area
(d) Lotha is a language spoken in Nagaland
119. Consider the following statements:
1. The forest cover in India constitutes around 20% of its geographical area. Out of the total forest cover, dense forest constitutes around 40%.
2. The National Fores-try Action Programme aims at bringing one-third of the area of India under tree/ forest cover.
Whith of the statements given above is/are correct)
(a) 1 orily (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
120 Consider the following statements:
1. The number of post offices in India is in excess of 1.5 lakhs.
2. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) was formed in the year 1997.
3. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was established in the year 2000.
Which of the staten1ents given above is/are correct)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only
note: This Question bank is based on Previous papers.So it is according to Scheme and Style of UPSC
original source : http://exams4india.blogspot.com/2009/02/model-test-paper-gs-civil-services.html
This one is for general Studies
1 According to Census 2001, which one of the following Indian States has the
maximum population in India after Uttar Pradesh?
(a) West Bengal (b) Maharashtra
(c) Bihar (d) Tamil Nadu
2 Itaipu Dam built at the River Parana is one of the largest dams in the
world. Which one of the following two countries have this as a joint project?
(a) Brazil and Peru (b) Paraguay and Ecuador
(c) Brazil and Paraguay (d) Colombia and Paraguay
3 Which one of the following cities is not a former capital of the given country
(Country given in the brackets)?
(a) Karachi (Pakistan) (b) Auckland (New Zealand)
(c) Kyoto Japan) (d) Brisbane (Australia)
4 Consider the following statements:
1. Total land area of Earth is approximately 1475 lakh square kilometres.
2. Ratio of land area to water area of Earth is approximately 1 : 4.
3. Maximum percentage of Earth's water is in the Pacific Ocean. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 ai1d 3 (b) 2 and 3 .
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only
5 Consider the following statements:
1. Kyoto Protocol came into force in the year 2005.
2. Kyoto Protocol deals primarily with the depletion of the Ozone layer.
3. Methane as a greenhouse gas is more harmful than carbon dioxide. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(e) 1 only (d) 3 only
6 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Seikan Rail Tunnel: China
(b) Petronas Towers: Malaysia
(c) Appalachian Trail : United States of America
(d) Rogun Dam : Tajikistan
7 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given Continents in the decreasing order of their percentage of Earth's land?
(a) North America - Africa - South America – Europe
(b) Africa - North America - South America – Europe
(c) North America - Africa - Europe - South America
(d) Africa - North America - Europe - South America
8 For which one of the following countries, is Spanish not an official language?
(a) Chile (b) Colombia
(c) Republic of Congo (d) Cuba
9 Which party was founded by Subhash Chandra' Bose in the year 1939 after he broke away from the Congress?
(a) Indian Freedom Party (b) Azad Hind Fauj
(c) Revolutionary Front (d) Forward Block
10 Consider the following statements:
1. Anhydrous sodium carbonate is commonly known as baking soda.
2. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.
3. Bleaching powder is manufactured in Hasenclever plant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct 7
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) I and 2
11 Consider the following statements:
1. A geostationary satellite is at an approximate height of 10,000 km.
2. FM transmission of music is of very good quality because the atmospheric or man-made noises which are generally frequency variations can do 'little harm.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
12 What is the order of magnitude of electric resistance of the human body
(dry)?
(a) 102 ohm (b) 104 ohm
(c) 106 ohm (d) 108 ohm
13 Consider the following statements:
1. The axis of the earth's magnetic field is inclined at 231/2° to the geographic axis of the earth.
2. The earth's magnetic pole in the northern hemisphere is located on a peninsula in northern Canada.
3. Earth's magnetic equator passes through Thumba in South lndia. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
14 Which one of the following is the landmark performance of Dr. V. Mohan
Reddy, an Indian born doctor working in U.S.A., during February, 2005? .
(a) Research on human stem cell which is likely to revolutionise treatment of deadly disease like cancer
(b) Successful open heart procedure called arterial switch performed on an infant
(c) Research on genetic engineering which can help in treatment of deadly disease like AIDS
(d) Successful brain surgery to revive the function of nearly dead brain of a premature born infant
15 Pneumoconiosis afflicts the workers who work mainly in:
(a) Tanneries (b) Coal mining industry
(c) Distilleries (d) Glass industry
16 Who among the following was not a contemporary of the other three?
(a) Bimbsara (b) Gautama Buddha
(c) Milinda (d) Prasenjit
17 Consider the following statements:
The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for
1. the provincial autonomy.
2. the establishment of Federal Court.
3. All India Federation at the ceph'e.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
18 Consider the' following statements:
1. Warren Hastings was the first Governor General who established a regular police force in India on the British pattern.
2. A Supreme Court was established at Calcutta by the Regulating Act, 1773. .
3. The Indian Penal Code came into effect in the year 1860.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
19 Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the battle fought in India in the 18th Century?
(a) Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Buxar - Battle of Ambur - Battle of Plassey
(b) Battle of Ambur - Battle of Plassey - Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Buxar
(c) Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Plassey - Battle of Ambur - Battle of Buxar
(d) Battle of Ambur - Battle of Buxar - Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Plassey
20 Whose autobiography is the book "My Music, My Life"?
(a) Pandit Shiv Kun~ar Sharma (b) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan
(c) Pandit Ravi S.harlkar (d) Ustad Zakir Hussain
21 Consider the following statements:
1. India is the only country in the world producing all the five known commercial varieties of silk.
2. India is the largest producer of sugar in the world. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) I only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
22 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Arjul1 : Indigenously produced Main Battle Tank (MBT)
(b) Phalcon : Cruise missile supplied by Russia to India .
(c) Saras : Indigenously developed civilian passenger aircraft
(d) Operation Seabird: New Indian Naval Base at Karwar
23 For which one of the following, is Satara well-known?
(a) Thermal power plant (b) Wind energy plant
(c) Hydro-electric plant (d) Nuclear power plant
24 Which one of the following companies has started a rural marketing network called 'e-chaupals'?
(a) ITC (b) Dabur
(c) Proctor and Gamble (d) Hindustan Lever
25 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Rourkela Steel Plant, the first integrated steel plant in the Public Sector of India was set up with the Soviet Union collaboration
(b) Salem Steel Plant is a premier producer of stainless steel in India
(c) Maharashtra Elektrosmelt Ltd. is a subsidiary of the Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(d) Visakhapatnam Steel Plant is a unit of the Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd.
26 Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(a) The modern Kochi was a Dutch colony till India's Independence
(b) The Dutch defeated the Portuguese and built Fort Williams in the modern Kochi
(c) The modern Kochi was first a Dutch colony before the Portuguese took over from them
(d) The modern Kochi never became a part of the British colony
27 Which one of the following was probed by the Liberhan Commission?
(a) Test Cricket match fixing (b) Best Bakery Case
(c) Tehelka tapes Case
(d) Demolition of the disputed structure at Ayodhya
28 Which one of the following airports in India is the first to be owned by a
public limited company?
(a) Dabolim Airport, Goa (b) Cochin airport
(c) Hyderabad airport (d) Bangalore airport
29 Consider the following sites/monuments :
1. Champaner - Pavagadh Archaeological Park
2. Chhatrapati Shivaji Railway Station, Mumbai
3. MamalIapuram
4. Sun Temple (Konark Temple)
Which of the above are included in the World Heritage List of UNESCO?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
30 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Bahamas Nassau
(b) Costa Rica San Jose
(c) Nicaragua Belmopan
(d) Dominican Republic Santo Domingo
31 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given towns of
Pakistan while moving from the North towards the South?
(a) Islamabad - Gujranwala - Peshawar – Multan
(b) Peshawar - Gujranwala - Multan – Islamabad
(c) Peshawar - Islamabad - Gujranwala - Multan
(d) Islamabad - Multan - Peshawar - Gujranwala
32 Where are the Balearic Islands located?
(a) Mediterranean Sea (b) Black Sea
(c) Baltic Sea (d) North Sea
33 Which one of the following countries does not border Lithuania?
(a) Poland (b) Ukraine
(c) Belarus (d) Latvia
34 Consider the following statements:
1. The Charter of the United Nations Organization was adopted at Geneva, Switzerland in June, 1945.
2. India was admitted to the United Nations Organization in the year 1945.
3. The Trusteeship Council of the United Nations Organization was established to manage the affairs of territories detached from Japan and Italy after the Second World War or such territories not under the control of a country at that time. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
35 Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament cannot change the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction is limited to that conferred by the Constitution.
2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High If Courts are appointed by the concerned Chief Justice and the administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
36 Consider the following statements:
1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property.
2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right.
3. Article 300 A was inserted in the Constitution of India by the Congress Government at the Centre by the 44th Constitutional Amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 .
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
37 Who among the following invented Lasers?
(a) Theodore Maiman (b) Denis Papin
(c) William Moton (d) Francis Crick
38 Consider the following statements:
1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet
regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitutions of India and the United States of America can envisage a dual
policy (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1 only
39 Consider the following statements:
1, Part IX of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Panchayats and was
inserted by the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992.
2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities
and the Article 243 Q envisages two types of municipalities - a Municipal
Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
40 Consider the following statements:
1. Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla Conference took place.
2. Indian Navy Revolt 1946 took place when the Indian sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
41 Which one of the following territories was not affected by the Revolt of
1857?
(a) Jhansi (b) Chittor
(c) ]agdishpur (d) Lucknow
42 Which one of the following places did Kunwar Singh, a prominent leader of
the Revolt of 1857 belong to?
(a) Bihar (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh
43 Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Mpcementt/Satyagraha Person Actively Associated With
1. Champaran Rajendra Prasad
2. Ahmedabad Mill Workers Morarji Desai
3. Kheda Vallabhbhai Patel select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 .(d) 1, 2 and 3
44 Who among the following was 110t associated with the formation of V.P.
Kisan Sabha in February 1918?
(a) Indra Narain Dwivedi (b) Gauri Shankar Misra
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Madan Mohan Malviya
45 Who among the following drafted the resolution on fundamental rights for
the Karachi Session of Congress in 1931?
(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (b) PanditJawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
46 In October 1920, who of the following headed a group of Indians gathered at
Tashkent to set up a Communist Party of India?
(a) H. K. Sarkar (b) P. C. Joshi
(c) M. C. Chagla (d) M. N. Roy
47 At which Congress Session was the Working Committee authorised to
launch a programme of Civil Disobedience?
(a) Bombay (b) Lahore
(c) Lucknow (d) Tripura
48 In which one of the following provinces was a Congress ministry not formed
under the Act of 1935?
(a) Bihar (b) Madras
(c) Orissa (d) Punjab
49 Consider the following statements: On the eve of the launch of Quit India
Movement, Mahatma Gandhi
1. asked the government servants to resign.
2. asked the soldiers to leave their posts.
3. asked the Princes of the Princely States to accept the sovereignty of their own people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2. (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
50 Where were the Ghadar revolutionaries, who became active during the
outbreak of the World War I based?
(a) Central America (b) North America'
(c) West America (d) South America
51 What was Komagata Maru?
(a) A political party based in Taiwan (b) Peasant communist lead.er of China
(c) A naval ship on voyage to China
(d) A Chinese village where Mao Tse Tung began his Long march
52 Who among the following was a proponent of Fabianism as a movement?
(a) Annie Beasant (b) A. O. Hume
(c) Michael Madhusudan Dutt (d) R. Palme Dutt
53 Recently, to which of the following countries did India offer to built a
BuddhaTemple?
(a) China (b) Myanmar
(c) Thailand (d) Vietnam
54 Which one of the following is not an ASEAN member?
(a) Cambodia (b) China'
(c) Laos (d) Philippines
55 Consider the following:
1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies
2. Motor accident cases 3. Pension cases For which of the above are Lok Adalats held?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only (d) I, 2 and 3
56 Consider the following statements:
1. Second World Buddhist Summit was held in Bangkok in November-December, 2004.
2. World Punjabi Conference was held in Jalandhar in December, 2004.
3. 4th Meeting of the SAARC Trade Ministers was held in Islamabad in November, 2004.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
57 Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament of Russia is called Federal Assembly.
2. The Council of the Federation in the Russian Parliament is the lower house.
3. The name of the upper house in the Russian Parliament is State Duma.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
58 Consider the following statements:
1. Great Britain comprises England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland.
2. England covers less than 60% of the total area of the United Kingdom: Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
59 Consider the following statements:
1. During the process of osmosis, the solvent travels from the concentrated
solution to the dilute solution.
2. In the reverse osmosis, external pressure is applied to the dilute solution.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct 7
(a) I only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
60 Consider the following statements:
1. Poverty Reduction and Growth Facility (PRGF) has been established by the International Development Association (IDA) to provide further assistance to low-income countries facing high level of indebtedness.
2. Singapore Regional Training Institute (STI) is one of the institutes that provides training in macro economic analysis and policy, and related subjects as a part of programme of the IMF Institute.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
61 Consider the following statements:
1. Sensex is based on 50 of the most important stocks available on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
2. For calculating the Sensex, all the Sensex stocks are assigned proportional weightage.
3. New York Stock Exchange- is the oldest stock exchange in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
62 Consider the following statements:
1. The Headquarters of the International Organization for Standardization are located in Rome.
2. ISO 9000 relates to the quality management system and standards.
3. ISO 14000 relates to environmental management system standards.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
63. Consider the following statements:
1. In the First Round Table Conference Dr. Ambedkar demanded separate electorates for the depressed classes.
2. n the Poona Act, special provisions for representation of the depressed people in the local bodies and civil services were made.
3. The Indian National Congress did not take part in the Third Round Table Conference.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
64. Consider the following statements:
1. lshwar Chandra Vidyasagar founded the Bethune School, at Calcutta with the main aim of encouraging education for women.
2. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay was the first graduate of the Calcutta University.
3. Keshav Chandra Sen's campaign against Sati led to the enactment of a law to ban Sati by the then Governor General.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct 7
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
65. Who among the following repealed the Vernacular Press Act?
(a) Lord Dufferin (b) Lord Ripon
(c) Lord Curzon (d) Lord Hardinge
66. Where is the volcanic mountain, Mount St. Helens located?
(a) Chile (b) Japan
(c) Philippines (d) United States of America
67. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The Western Ghats are relatively higher in their northern region
(b) The Anai Mudi is the highest peak in the Western Ghats
(c) Tapi river lies to the south of Satpura
(d) The Narmada and the Tapi river valleys are said to be old rift valleys
68. Gandhi Sagar Dam is a part of which one of the following?
(a) Chambal Project (b) Kosi Project
(c) Damodar Valley Project (d) Bhakra Nangal Project
69 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given hills starting
from the north and going towards the south?
(a) Nllamalai Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills – Anaimalai Hills
(b) Anaimalai Hills - Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills – Nallamalai Hills
(c) Nallamalai Hills - Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills – Anaimalai Hills.
(d) Anaimalai Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills – Nallamalai Hills
70 Which one of the following is not a Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Agasthyamalai (b) Nallamalai
(c) Nilgiri (d) Panchmarhi
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only
Consider the following statements:
1. Vigyan Raif is a Science Exhibition on wheels organized bv the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research.
2. Vigyan Prasar is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Human Resource Development.
3. EDUSA T, the lSRO's educational satellite was launched from French Guyana in 2004.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
71 Consider the following statements:
1. Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) is liquefied under extremely cold temperatures and high pressure to facilitate storage or transportation in specially designed vessels.
2. First LNG terminal in India was built in Hassan.
3. Natural Gas Liquids (NGL) are separated from LPG and these include ethane, propane, butane and natural gasoline.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and3
Directions (For the next FOUR items): Ba1iedon the information given below, answer the four items which follow it : Gopal, Harsh, Inder, Jai and Krislman have Ahmedabad, Bhopal, Cuttack, Delhi and Ernakulam as their hometowns (Not necessarily in that order). They' are studying in Engineering, Medical, Commerce, Economics and History Colleges (Not necessarily in that order). None of the five boys is studying in his hometown, buteach of them studies in one of the cities given above.
Further, it is given that:
(i) Gopal's hometown is Ernakulam. .
(ii) Harsh is not studying in Ahmedabad or Bhopal. .
(iii) Economic College is in Bhopal.
(iv) lnder's hometown is Cuttack.
(v) Krishnan is studying in Delhi
(vi) Jai is studying in Ernakulam and the History College is in his hometown Ahmedabad.
(vii) Engineering College is situated in Ernakulam.
Based on the information given above answer the next FOUR items:
72. Which is Krishnan's hometown?
(a) Ahmedabad (b) Cuttack
(c) Bhopal (d) Cannot be determined
73. Which College is situated in Inder's hometown?
(a) Commerce (b) Medical
(c) Economics (d) Commerce or Medical
74. Who studies in Bhopal?
(a) Gopal (b) Harsh
(c) Gopal or lnder (d) Inder or Harsh
75. If Inder studies in Ahmedabad, then which one of the following is the correct
combination of Person – Hometown Place of Study?
(a) Gopal - Ernakulam- Delhi
(b) Jai.- Ahmedabad - Ernakulam
(c) Krishnan - Delhi - Ernakulam
(d) Harsh - Bhopal- Delhi
76. Left pan of a faulty balance weighs 100 gram more than its right pan. A shopkeeper keeps the weight measure in the left pan while buying goods but keeps it in the right pan while selling his goods. He uses only 1 kg weight measure. If he sells his goods at the listed cost price, what is his gain?
(a) 200/11% (b) 100/11 %
(c) 100/9% (d) 200/9%
77.On a railway route between two places A and B, there are 10 stations on the way. If 4 new stations are to be added, how many types of new tickets will be required if each ticket is issued for a one-way journey?
(a) 14 (b) 48
(c) 96 (d) 108
78.
Aryan runs at a speed of 40 metre/minute. Rahul follows him after an interval of 5 minutes and runs at a speed of 50 metre/minute. Rahul's dog runs at a speed of 60 metre/ minute and starts along with Rahul. The dog reaches Aryan and then comes back to Rahul, and continues to do so till Rahul reaches Aryan. What is the total distance covered by the dog?
(a) 600 metres (b) 750 metres
(c) 980 metres (d) 1200 metres
79.A big rectangular p-Iot. of area 4320 m 2 is divided into 3 square-shaped smaller plots by fencing parallel to the smaller side of the plot. However some area of land Was still left as a square could not be formed. So, 3 more square-shaped plots were formed ~y fencing parallel to the longer side of the original plot such that no area of the plot was left surplus. What are the dimensions of the original plot?
(a) 160 m x 27 111 (b) 240 m x 18 m
(c) 120 m x 36 m (d) 135 m x 32 m
80 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given substances in the decreasing order of their densities?
(a) Steel> Mercury> Gold (b) Gold> Mercury> Steel
(c) Steel> Gold> Mercury (d) Gold:> Steel> Mercury
81. Of which one of the following games is Shanmugham Venkatesh an
outstanding player?
(a) Table tennis (b) Hockey
(c) Football (d) Basketball
82 2 men and 1 woman board a bus in which 5 seats, are vacant.
One of these five seats is reserved for ladies. A woman may or may not sit on the seat reserved for ladies but a man can not sit on the seat reserved for ladies. In how, many different ways can the five seats be occupied by these three passengers?
(a) 15 (b) 36 (c) 48 (d) 60
83 Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts. "
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
84 Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution
Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) B. R. Ambedkar (b) J. B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
85. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Southern Air Command: Thiruvananthapuram
(b) Eastern Naval Command: Visakhapatnam
(c) Armoured Corps Centre and School : Jabalpur
(d) Army Medical Corps Centre and School : Lucknow
86. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Publication Group
1. Sportstar The Hindu publication group
2. Business-world ABP group
3. The Week Malayala Manorama publication group
4. Reader's Digest Indian Express publication group
87 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
88. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Enterprise Industrial Group
1. VSNL Bharati Group
2. Mundra SEZ Adani Group
3. CMC Ltd. Tata Group
4. lPCL Reliance Group
89 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1,2and3 (b) 3and4
(c) I, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
90 In which country is Bandung, where the Conference of Mrican and Asian
nations was held which led to establishing Non-Aligned Movement (NAM),
situated?
(a) Thailand (b) Egypt
(c) Indonesia (d) Philippines
91 A square is divided into 9 identical smaller squares. Six identical balls are to
be placed in these smaller squares such that each of the three rows gets at
least one ball (one ballin one square only). In how many different ways can
this be done?
(a) 27 (b) 36
(c) 54 (d) 81
92 There are 6 persons - A, B, C, D, E and F. They are to be seated in a row
such that B never sits anywhere ahead of A, and Cinever sits anywhere
ahead of B. In how many different ways can this be done?
(a) 60 (b) 72
(c) 120 (d) None of the above
93. For which one of the following items, is Tirupur well C.S.E. General Studies
(Pm.) – 2005 known as a huge exporter to many parts of the world?
(a) Gems and Jewellery (b) Leather goods.
(c) Knitted gannants (d) Handicrafts .
94. Which one of the following pairs is Hot correctly matched?
Project Company
(a) Integrated Steel Plant at Jajpur (Orissa): Steel Authodty of India
(b) Power Plant at Jamnagar(Gujarat): Essar Power
(c) Nabinagar Power Plant (Bihar): Indian railways
(d) Kayamkulom Power Plant (Kerala): National Thermal Power Corporation
95. Virtual water trade is being looked at by experts as a solution to the world's
water crisis. What does virtual water (VW) imply?
(a) Volume of heavy water required to replace ordinary water.
(b) Volume of water required to produce a commodity or service
(c) V olume of water saved by using rainwater harvesting
(d) Volume of water utilized by an effective flood control
96. Consider the following statements concerning the Indian Railways:
1. The Head Quarters of the North Western Railway are located at Jodhpur.
2. ‘lndrail pass' - a travel-as-you-please ticket has been created especially for freedom fighters and sports persons who have represented India in any game/ sport.
3. Fairy Queen is a train using the world's oldest working engine and the Indian Railways conduct a journey of wildlife and heritage sites on it.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None
97. 300 persons are participating in a meeting, out of which 120 are foreigners,
and the rest are Indians. Out of the Indians, there are 110 men who are not
judges; 160 are men or judges, and 35 are women judges. There are no
foreign judges. How many Indian women attended the meeting?
(a) 35 (b) 45 (c)
55 (d) 60
98. There are 6 persons: A, B, C, D, E and F.
A has 3 items more than C D has 4 items less than B
E has 6 items less than F C has 2 items more than E
F has 3 items more than D
Which one of the following figures can not be equal to the total number of items possessed by all the 6 persons?
(a) 41 (b) 47
(c) 53 (d) 58
99. Ten identical particles are moving randomly inside a closed box. What is the
probability that at any given point of time all the ten particles will be lying
in the same half of the box?
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/5
(c) 2/9 (d) 2/11
100. An equilateral triangular plate is to be cut into n number of identical small
equilateral triangular plates. Which one of the following can be possible
value of n?
(a) 196 (b) 216
(c) 256 (d) 296
101. There are 10 identical coins and each one of them has 'H' engraved on its
one face and 'T' engraved on its other face. These 10 coins are lying on a
table and each one of them has 'H' face as the upper face. In one attempt,
exactly four (neither more nor less) coins can be turned upside down. What
is the minimum total number of attempts in which the 'T' faces of all the 10 coins can be brought to be the upper faces?
(a) 4 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) Not possible
102. Which of the following States border Uttar Pradesh?
1. Punjab 2. Rajasthan
3. Chhattisgarh 4. Jharkhand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
103. Which one of the following cities is the seat of Parliament of South Africa?
(a) Pretoria (b) Durban
(c) Johannesburg (d) Cape Town
104. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
British Prime Minister . Political Party
(a) John Major Conservative Partv
(b) James Callaghan Labour Party ~
(c) Harold Wilson Conservative Party
(d) Margaret Thatcher Conservative Party
105 In which one of the following countries, is Tamil a major language?
(a) Myanmar (b) Indonesia
(c) Mauritius (d) Singapore
106. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given Indian cities
in the decreasing order of their normal annual rainfall?
(a) Kochi - Kolkata - Delhi - Patna
(b) Kolkata - Kochi - Patna – Delhi
(c) Kochi - Kolkata - Patna - Delhi
(d) Kolkata - Kochi - Delhi - Patna
106 Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of the United States of America came into force in the year 1810.
2. All revenue bills must originate in the House of Representatives of the US Congress.
3. George W.Bush is the only President in the history of the United States of America whose father was also the President of the United States of America
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
107 Which of the following diseases of mil ching animals are infectious?
1. Foot and Mouth disease 2. Anthrax
3. Black Quarter 4. Cowpox
Select the correct answer using the codes given below;
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
108 Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the Food
and Nutrition Board work?
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
109 Consider the following statements:
1. Dengue is a protozoan' disease transmitted by mosquitoes.
2. Retro-orbital pain is not a symptom of Dengue.
3. Skin rash and bleeding from nose and gums are some of the symptoms of the Dengue.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3
110 Who among the following is not a member of the Investment Commission
formed in December, 2004?
(a) Ratan Tata (b) Deepak Parekh
(c) Ashok Ganguly (d) Kumaramangalam Birla
111 Consider the following statements:
1. Silent Valley National Park is in the Nallamalai range.
2. Pathrakkadavu Hydroelectric Project is proposed to be built near the Silent Valley National Park.
3. The Kunthi river originates in Silent Valley's rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
112 In which one of the following countries did hundreds of people die in year
2004 as a result of flooding and mudslides triggered by Tropical Storm
Jeanne?
(a) Colombia (b) Haiti
(c) Sudan (d) Ghana
113 Consider the following statements:
1. Areawise, Chhattisgarh is larger than West Bengal.
2. According to the Population '2001 Census, population of West Bengal is larger than that of Chhattisgarh.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
114 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Current Name Old Name
(a) Harare Salisbury
(b) Ethiopia Abyssinia.
(c) Ghana Dutch Guiana
(d) Kinshasa Leopoldville
115 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The First Meeting of the Parties (MOP 1) to the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety was held in Philippines in the year 2004
(b) India is not a signatory to the Biosafety Protocol/Convention on Biological Diversity
(c) The Biosafety protocol deals with genetically modified organisms
(d) The United States of America is member of the Biosafety Protocol/Convention on Biological Diversity
116 Which one of the following is the correct statement on the basis of Census-
200l?
(a) Bihar has the highest percentage of the Scheduled Castes of its population
(b) The decadal growth of population of India (1991-2001) has been below 20%
(c) Mizoram is the Indian State with the least population
(d) Pondicherry has the highest sex ratio among the Union Territories
117. Consider the following statements:
1. India is the second country in the world to adopt a National Family Planning Programme.
2. The National Population Policy of India 2000 seeks to achieve replacement level of fertility by 201 0 with a population of 111 crores.
3. Kerala is the first State in India to achieve replacement level of fertility.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct 7
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
118 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) There is no definition of the Scheduled Tribe in the Constitution of India
(b) North-East India accounts for a little over half of the country's tribal population
(c) The people known as Todas live in the Nilgiri area
(d) Lotha is a language spoken in Nagaland
119. Consider the following statements:
1. The forest cover in India constitutes around 20% of its geographical area. Out of the total forest cover, dense forest constitutes around 40%.
2. The National Fores-try Action Programme aims at bringing one-third of the area of India under tree/ forest cover.
Whith of the statements given above is/are correct)
(a) 1 orily (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
120 Consider the following statements:
1. The number of post offices in India is in excess of 1.5 lakhs.
2. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) was formed in the year 1997.
3. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was established in the year 2000.
Which of the staten1ents given above is/are correct)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only
note: This Question bank is based on Previous papers.So it is according to Scheme and Style of UPSC
original source : http://exams4india.blogspot.com/2009/02/model-test-paper-gs-civil-services.html
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)